UPSC Civil Services Examination – General Studies Paper I

Number of Questions: 10
Suggested Time: 15 minutes
Maximum Marks: 20

These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy. They are not official UPSC questions.

Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to the creation and abolition of Legislative Councils in States, consider the following statements:

1. Parliament may create or abolish a Legislative Council in a State if the Legislative Assembly of that State passes a resolution to that effect.
2. Such a resolution must be passed by a majority of the total membership of the Assembly and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
3. A law passed by Parliament for this purpose is deemed to be a constitutional amendment under Article 368.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the parliamentary committees of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Public Accounts Committee examines the reports of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
2. The Estimates Committee consists of members drawn from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
3. A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the Public Accounts Committee.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. With reference to the monetary policy framework of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

1. The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) acts as the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility corridor.
2. The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) generally acts as the ceiling of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility corridor.
3. The repo rate is the rate at which the Reserve Bank of India absorbs liquidity from banks without collateral.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to fiscal indicators, consider the following statements:

1. Effective Revenue Deficit is obtained by subtracting grants for the creation of capital assets from the Revenue Deficit.
2. Grants for the creation of capital assets are classified as capital expenditure in the Union Budget.
3. Effective Revenue Deficit seeks to distinguish between revenue expenditure that creates no assets and grants that help create capital assets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to laterite soils in India, consider the following statements:

1. They are generally formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall with intense leaching.
2. They are generally rich in nitrogen, humus and phosphorus.
3. With appropriate soil management and fertiliser application, they can support crops such as tea, coffee and cashew.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. With reference to the Gandhara and Mathura schools of art, consider the following statements:

1. Gandhara art shows strong Greco-Roman artistic influences.
2. The Gandhara school frequently used grey schist in sculpture.
3. The Mathura school is associated with the use of red sandstone.
4. The Mathura school was entirely dependent on foreign artistic traditions and had no significant indigenous elements.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q7. With reference to the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946, consider the following statements:

1. It proposed a Union of India dealing with foreign affairs, defence and communications.
2. It proposed grouping of provinces into three sections.
3. It accepted the demand for the immediate creation of a fully sovereign Pakistan.
4. It proposed the establishment of a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q8. With reference to Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) in India, consider the following statements:

1. The EIA Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
2. Projects are classified broadly into Category A and Category B for the purpose of environmental clearance.
3. The State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA) is involved in granting environmental clearance to Category B projects.
4. Environmental clearance is granted only after a project has commenced commercial operations.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q9. With reference to Bt cotton, consider the following statements:

1. Bt cotton incorporates genes derived from the bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.
2. The Bt trait enables the plant to produce proteins toxic to certain insect pests.
3. Bt cotton is primarily designed to provide resistance against all viral diseases affecting cotton.
4. The use of Bt cotton can reduce dependence on certain chemical insecticides targeting susceptible bollworms, although resistance management remains important.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. With reference to ocean acidification, consider the following statements:

1. It is primarily associated with the absorption of atmospheric carbon dioxide by ocean water.
2. The dissolution of carbon dioxide in seawater leads to chemical reactions that increase hydrogen ion concentration.
3. Ocean acidification can reduce the availability of carbonate ions required by many marine organisms to build shells and skeletons.
4. Ocean acidification means that the pH of all oceans has already fallen below 7.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Section II: Answer Key

Question	Correct answer
1	(a)
2	(b)
3	(a)
4	(b)
5	(b)
6	(b)
7	(b)
8	(b)
9	(b)
10	(b)

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Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provision: Article 169

Article 169 deals with the creation or abolition of Legislative Councils in States.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Parliament can create or abolish a Legislative Council if the Legislative Assembly of the concerned State passes a resolution to that effect.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The resolution must be supported by:
  • A majority of the total membership of the Legislative Assembly; and
  • A majority of not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: A law passed by Parliament under Article 169 is not deemed to be a constitutional amendment under Article 368. It can be passed through the ordinary legislative process, subject to the special resolution requirement in the State Assembly.

Prelims takeaway: The creation or abolition of a Legislative Council requires a special resolution of the State Legislative Assembly followed by parliamentary legislation. It does not require the Article 368 amendment procedure.

Q2. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 3 only

Concept: Parliamentary financial committees

The three important financial committees of Parliament are:

1. Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
2. Estimates Committee.
3. Committee on Public Undertakings.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The PAC examines the appropriation accounts and finance accounts of the Union and the reports of the CAG relating to them. It examines whether public money has been spent in accordance with parliamentary authorisation and relevant financial rules.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: The Estimates Committee consists of 30 members, all elected from the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no representation in it.
• Statement 3 – Correct: A Minister cannot be elected as a member of the PAC.

The PAC has 22 members: 15 from the Lok Sabha and 7 from the Rajya Sabha.

Prelims takeaway: Remember the composition of the financial committees. The Estimates Committee is exclusively a Lok Sabha committee, whereas the PAC and Committee on Public Undertakings have representation from both Houses.

Q3. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: Liquidity Adjustment Facility corridor

The RBI uses various policy rates and liquidity-management instruments to influence short-term interest rates and manage liquidity in the banking system.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The Standing Deposit Facility (SDF) is the floor of the Liquidity Adjustment Facility corridor. It allows the RBI to absorb liquidity from banks without providing collateral.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) generally acts as the ceiling of the corridor, allowing eligible banks to obtain overnight liquidity from the RBI against eligible securities at a rate above the repo rate.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The repo rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to banks against eligible collateral. It is not the rate at which the RBI absorbs liquidity without collateral.

Prelims takeaway: Distinguish the functions of the SDF, repo rate and MSF. The SDF absorbs liquidity without collateral, while the repo and MSF are lending facilities.

Q4. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 3 only

Concept: Effective Revenue Deficit

Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced to provide a more meaningful understanding of the government’s revenue expenditure.

[
\text{Effective Revenue Deficit} =
\text{Revenue Deficit} –
\text{Grants for Creation of Capital Assets}
]

• Statement 1 – Correct: This is the formula for Effective Revenue Deficit.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Grants for the creation of capital assets are classified as revenue expenditure in government accounts, even though they help recipients create capital assets.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Effective Revenue Deficit distinguishes between revenue expenditure that does not create assets and grants that facilitate capital formation by other entities.

For example, grants given by the Union Government to States for creating roads, schools or other infrastructure are recorded as grants, even though they may result in capital asset creation by the recipient government.

Prelims takeaway: Do not confuse the accounting classification of expenditure with its economic outcome. A revenue grant may facilitate the creation of a capital asset.

Q5. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 3 only

Concept: Laterite soils

Laterite soils are generally associated with regions receiving high rainfall and high temperatures. Intense leaching removes soluble materials and bases from the upper layers of soil.

• Statement 1 – Correct: High temperature and heavy rainfall promote chemical weathering and leaching, leading to the formation of lateritic soils.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: Laterite soils are generally poor in nitrogen, humus, potash and phosphorus. They may be rich in iron and aluminium compounds.
• Statement 3 – Correct: With suitable soil management, manuring and fertiliser application, laterite soils can support plantations and crops such as tea, coffee and cashew.

They are found in parts of the Western and Eastern Ghats, the Deccan plateau and other regions of India.

Prelims takeaway: Laterite soils are products of intense leaching. Their agricultural productivity depends heavily on soil management and nutrient supplementation.

Q6. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Historical context: Gandhara and Mathura schools of art

The Gandhara and Mathura schools were important centres of Buddhist sculpture during the early centuries of the Common Era.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Gandhara art shows strong Greco-Roman influences, visible in its sculptural techniques, drapery and representation of human figures.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Grey schist was frequently used in Gandhara sculptures.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The Mathura school is particularly associated with red sandstone.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Mathura school had strong indigenous artistic characteristics and was not entirely dependent on foreign traditions.

Broad comparison:

Gandhara school	Mathura school
Strong Greco-Roman influence	Predominantly indigenous artistic traditions
Frequently used grey schist	Frequently used red sandstone
Naturalistic representation and detailed drapery	Distinctive treatment of bodily form and symbolism
Located in the north-western subcontinent	Developed around Mathura in northern India

Prelims takeaway: Both schools contributed to the development of the Buddha’s anthropomorphic representation, but their artistic styles and material traditions differed.

Q7. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 4 only

Historical context: Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946

The Cabinet Mission was sent to India by the British Government in 1946 to facilitate the transfer of power and resolve the constitutional deadlock between the Congress and the Muslim League.

• Statement 1 – Correct: It proposed a Union of India responsible for foreign affairs, defence and communications, along with the finances required for these subjects.
• Statement 2 – Correct: It proposed grouping the provinces into three sections:
  • Section A: Predominantly Hindu-majority provinces.
  • Section B: North-western Muslim-majority provinces.
  • Section C: Bengal and Assam.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Mission rejected the demand for the immediate creation of a fully sovereign Pakistan.
• Statement 4 – Correct: It proposed a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.

The Plan attempted to preserve Indian unity while accommodating competing political demands through a limited Union structure.

Prelims takeaway: The Cabinet Mission Plan proposed a weak Union with three principal subjects and a Constituent Assembly. It did not accept the demand for Pakistan in the form sought by the Muslim League.

Q8. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Legal framework: Environmental Impact Assessment Notification, 2006

Environmental Impact Assessment is a process through which the likely environmental consequences of a proposed project are evaluated before environmental clearance is granted.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The EIA Notification, 2006 was issued under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Projects are broadly classified into Category A and Category B based on their nature, scale and potential environmental impact.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Category B projects are considered at the State level through the State Environment Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAA), with appraisal by the State Expert Appraisal Committee (SEAC), subject to applicable rules and exceptions.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: Environmental clearance is a prior requirement for covered projects. It is not granted only after commercial operations have commenced.

Prelims takeaway: EIA is an anticipatory environmental assessment mechanism. Its purpose is to evaluate environmental consequences before the relevant project proceeds.

Q9. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 4 only

Concept: Bt cotton

Bt cotton is a genetically modified crop developed by introducing genes derived from the soil bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Bt cotton contains genes derived from Bacillus thuringiensis.
• Statement 2 – Correct: These genes enable the plant to produce insecticidal proteins that are toxic to certain insect pests, particularly susceptible bollworms.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Bt cotton is not designed to provide resistance against all viral diseases affecting cotton.
• Statement 4 – Correct: Bt technology can reduce dependence on certain insecticides used against susceptible bollworms. However, resistance management and monitoring of pest populations remain important.

The development of insect resistance, secondary pest outbreaks and the need for refuge strategies are important issues in the long-term management of Bt technology.

Prelims takeaway: Bt technology provides targeted insect resistance; it should not be confused with herbicide tolerance or broad-spectrum resistance to plant diseases.

Q10. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Concept: Ocean acidification

Ocean acidification refers to the long-term decline in the pH of seawater, primarily due to the absorption of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The oceans absorb a substantial proportion of the carbon dioxide released into the atmosphere through human activities.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Carbon dioxide dissolves in seawater and participates in chemical reactions that increase hydrogen ion concentration, lowering pH.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Increased acidity reduces the availability of carbonate ions, which many marine organisms require to build calcium carbonate shells and skeletons.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: Ocean acidification does not mean that seawater has become acidic in the strict chemical sense everywhere. Ocean water remains generally alkaline, with a pH above 7, although its pH is declining.

Organisms such as corals, molluscs and certain planktonic species are particularly vulnerable to changes in carbonate chemistry.

Prelims takeaway: Ocean acidification is distinct from ocean warming, although both are consequences of increasing atmospheric greenhouse gas concentrations.

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Section IV: Self-Assessment

Scoring method: Award 2 marks for every correct answer. Deduct one-third of the marks assigned to a question for every incorrect answer.

Score	Assessment
16–20	Very good conceptual understanding
12–15	Good performance; revise incorrect concepts
8–11	Moderate understanding; strengthen fundamentals
Below 8	Revisit the relevant NCERT and standard reference material

Topics to Revise

1. Creation and abolition of Legislative Councils – Article 169.
2. Parliamentary financial committees.
3. RBI liquidity corridor – SDF, repo rate and MSF.
4. Fiscal deficit, revenue deficit and effective revenue deficit.
5. Laterite soils and soil formation.
6. Gandhara and Mathura schools of art.
7. Cabinet Mission Plan, 1946.
8. Environmental Impact Assessment Notification, 2006.
9. Bt cotton and genetic engineering.
10. Ocean acidification and marine ecosystems.

Samata IAS Academy – Preparing for the Civil Services Examination through conceptual clarity and analytical understanding.