UPSC Prelims Daily Practice – 10 MCQs with Answers and Explanations (Set 002)

Samata IAS Academy | Samata Prelims Daily

Date: 1 November 2026
Practice Set: 002
Examination: UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination
Subject: General Studies Paper I
Number of Questions: 10

Introduction

The UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination tests a candidate’s ability to understand concepts, interpret statements and apply knowledge across different areas of General Studies.

Under Samata Prelims Daily, Samata IAS Academy provides original practice questions designed around the conceptual and analytical requirements of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination.

Today’s practice set covers constitutional institutions, Directive Principles of State Policy, national income accounting, monetary policy, climate phenomena, biodiversity, biotechnology, parliamentary procedures and Indian geography.

Instructions for candidates

  • Attempt all ten questions before referring to the answer key.
  • Each question carries 2 marks for practice purposes.
  • Apply negative marking of one-third of the marks assigned to a question for incorrect answers.
  • There is no negative marking for unanswered questions.
  • Suggested time: 15 minutes.

Total marks: 20 | Suggested time: 15 minutes


Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The President of India constitutes the Finance Commission every fifth year or earlier, as considered necessary.
  2. The Finance Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members.
  3. It recommends measures to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities on the basis of recommendations made by the respective State Finance Commissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs):

  1. The Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court.
  2. The Constitution declares that the Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country.
  3. The State is constitutionally obligated to apply these principles while making laws and policies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. With reference to Gross Value Added (GVA) and Gross Domestic Product (GDP), consider the following statements:

  1. GVA measures the value of output produced in an economy after deducting intermediate consumption.
  2. GDP at market prices can be derived by adding product taxes and subtracting product subsidies from GVA at basic prices.
  3. The GDP deflator reflects the price changes of domestically produced final goods and services.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the monetary policy operations of the Reserve Bank of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Under a repo transaction, the RBI provides liquidity to eligible counterparties against securities with an agreement to repurchase them.
  2. An increase in the repo rate generally raises the cost of short-term borrowing from the RBI.
  3. The reverse repo operation is designed to absorb liquidity from the banking system.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to the El Niño phenomenon, consider the following statements:

  1. It involves an abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.
  2. It is generally associated with a weakening of the trade winds over the equatorial Pacific.
  3. Every El Niño event necessarily results in deficient southwest monsoon rainfall over India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. Consider the following statements regarding the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD):

  1. Conservation of biological diversity is one of its principal objectives.
  2. Sustainable use of the components of biodiversity is one of its objectives.
  3. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources is one of its objectives.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to CRISPR-Cas9 gene-editing technology, consider the following statements:

  1. Guide RNA helps identify the target DNA sequence.
  2. Cas9 acts as a molecular tool that can cut DNA at the targeted location.
  3. CRISPR-Cas9 can be used only in bacterial cells and cannot be applied to plant or animal cells.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. With reference to parliamentary procedures in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Adjournment suspends the proceedings of a House for a specified period.
  2. Prorogation terminates a session of Parliament.
  3. Dissolution brings the Lok Sabha to an end but does not dissolve the Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. Consider the following statements regarding black soils in India:

  1. They are generally associated with the weathering of basaltic rocks of the Deccan Trap region.
  2. They generally possess high moisture-retention capacity.
  3. Their clayey composition contributes to the formation of deep cracks during dry periods.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to laterite soils in India, consider the following statements:

  1. They are generally formed under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall.
  2. Intense leaching is an important process in their formation.
  3. They are generally rich in humus and naturally highly fertile without additional nutrient management.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3


Section II: Answer Key

QuestionCorrect answerSubject
1(d)Indian Polity
2(d)Indian Polity
3(d)Indian Economy
4(d)Indian Economy
5(a)Geography
6(d)Environment
7(a)Science and Technology
8(d)Indian Polity
9(d)Indian Geography
10(a)Indian Geography

Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Correct: Article 280 of the Constitution provides for the constitution of a Finance Commission by the President every fifth year or at such earlier time as the President considers necessary.

Statement 2 – Correct: The Finance Commission consists of a Chairperson and four other members. Parliament determines the qualifications of the Chairperson and other members and the manner in which they are selected.

Statement 3 – Correct: The Finance Commission recommends measures to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities on the basis of recommendations made by the respective State Finance Commissions.

Additional information for Prelims:

The major functions of the Finance Commission include:

  • Recommending the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and the States.
  • Recommending the allocation of shares among States.
  • Recommending principles governing grants-in-aid.
  • Recommending measures to augment State Consolidated Funds to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

Important distinction: The Finance Commission is a constitutional body, whereas the State Finance Commissions are constituted by State Governors under Articles 243-I and 243-Y.

Q2. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in Part IV of the Constitution, covering Articles 36 to 51.

Statement 1 – Correct: Article 37 explicitly provides that the Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court.

Statement 2 – Correct: Article 37 declares that these principles are nevertheless fundamental in the governance of the country.

Statement 3 – Correct: The same Article directs the State to apply these principles in making laws.

Classification of DPSPs:

CategoryExamples
Socialist principlesEqual pay for equal work, minimisation of inequalities
Gandhian principlesVillage Panchayats, promotion of cottage industries
Liberal-intellectual principlesUniform Civil Code, separation of judiciary from executive

Important constitutional connections:

  • Article 38: Promotion of welfare of the people.
  • Article 39: Certain principles of policy to be followed by the State.
  • Article 39A: Equal justice and free legal aid.
  • Article 40: Organisation of village Panchayats.
  • Article 44: Uniform Civil Code.
  • Article 48A: Protection and improvement of the environment.

UPSC perspective: The relationship between Fundamental Rights and DPSPs has been an important subject of constitutional interpretation. The Supreme Court has emphasised the importance of harmonising both.

Q3. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Correct: GVA measures the value of economic output generated by producers after deducting intermediate consumption.

[
GVA = Output – Intermediate\ Consumption
]

Statement 2 – Correct: GDP at market prices can be calculated by adding net product taxes to GVA at basic prices.

[
GDP_{MP} = GVA_{BP} + Product\ Taxes – Product\ Subsidies
]

Statement 3 – Correct: The GDP deflator measures changes in the prices of domestically produced final goods and services included in GDP. It is a broad measure of price movements in the domestic economy.

Difference between GDP and GVA:

GDPGVA
Measures the value of final output at market pricesMeasures value added by producers
Includes net product taxesExcludes net product taxes when measured at basic prices
Indicates overall economic outputHelps examine sectoral production performance

Additional information:

The three broad sectors used in national income accounting are:

  1. Primary sector – Agriculture and allied activities.
  2. Secondary sector – Manufacturing, construction and related activities.
  3. Tertiary sector – Services.

UPSC perspective: Understand the distinction between GDP, GVA, nominal GDP, real GDP and GDP deflator.

Q4. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Correct: Under a repo transaction, the RBI provides liquidity to eligible counterparties against securities, with an agreement to repurchase the securities at a specified future date and price.

Statement 2 – Correct: An increase in the repo rate generally increases the cost of borrowing funds through the relevant RBI lending facility, transmitting tighter monetary conditions into the banking system.

Statement 3 – Correct: Reverse repo operations involve the absorption of liquidity from the banking system against securities.

Monetary policy instruments:

InstrumentBroad purpose
Repo ratePolicy rate associated with liquidity provision
Standing Deposit FacilityAbsorption of liquidity without collateral
Marginal Standing FacilityEmergency overnight borrowing facility for eligible banks
Cash Reserve RatioCash balances that banks must maintain with RBI
Statutory Liquidity RatioLiquid assets banks must maintain as prescribed

Important distinction: The Standing Deposit Facility and the fixed-rate reverse repo are distinct liquidity-absorption instruments. The SDF does not require collateral.

UPSC perspective: Study how changes in policy rates affect credit creation, investment, consumption, inflation and economic growth.

Q5. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: El Niño is characterised by abnormal warming of sea surface temperatures in the central and eastern equatorial Pacific Ocean.

Statement 2 – Correct: It is generally associated with a weakening of the equatorial Pacific trade winds, although the magnitude varies across events.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: El Niño does not invariably result in deficient southwest monsoon rainfall in India. The relationship is statistically significant but not deterministic. Other oceanic and atmospheric factors, including the Indian Ocean Dipole, also influence monsoon behaviour.

El Niño and La Niña:

El NiñoLa Niña
Abnormal warming of central/eastern equatorial Pacific watersAbnormal cooling of central/eastern equatorial Pacific waters
Usually weaker trade windsUsually stronger trade winds
Often associated with changes in global rainfall patternsOften produces broadly contrasting rainfall patterns

Additional information:

  • ENSO stands for El Niño–Southern Oscillation.
  • It includes El Niño, La Niña and neutral phases.
  • ENSO influences global atmospheric circulation and weather patterns.

UPSC perspective: Link ENSO with Indian monsoon variability, droughts, floods, agriculture and global climate patterns.

Q6. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

The Convention on Biological Diversity was adopted at the Rio Earth Summit in 1992 and entered into force in 1993.

It has three principal objectives:

  1. Conservation of biological diversity.
  2. Sustainable use of the components of biological diversity.
  3. Fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from the utilisation of genetic resources.

Important associated frameworks:

  • Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety: Addresses the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms.
  • Nagoya Protocol: Deals with access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilisation.
  • Kunming-Montreal Global Biodiversity Framework: Adopted in 2022, it provides a global framework for biodiversity conservation and sustainable use.

UPSC perspective: Distinguish between CBD, CITES, Ramsar Convention, UNFCCC and the Convention on Migratory Species.

Q7. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Guide RNA helps recognise and direct the CRISPR-Cas9 complex towards a complementary target DNA sequence.

Statement 2 – Correct: Cas9 is an enzyme that functions as a molecular scissors, cutting DNA at or near the targeted sequence.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: CRISPR-Cas9 technology has applications in plants, animals and human cells, apart from its foundational use in bacterial systems.

Applications of CRISPR-Cas9:

  • Development of disease-resistant crop varieties.
  • Functional genomics and gene-function studies.
  • Research into genetic disorders.
  • Development of potential gene therapies.
  • Agricultural biotechnology.

Challenges and ethical concerns:

  • Off-target mutations.
  • Unintended genetic changes.
  • Ethical concerns regarding germline editing.
  • Biosafety and ecological risks.

UPSC perspective: Understand the difference between gene editing, genetic modification and conventional selective breeding.

Q8. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Correct: Adjournment suspends the proceedings of a House for a specified period. It is generally ordered by the presiding officer.

Statement 2 – Correct: Prorogation terminates a session of Parliament. It is formally done by the President.

Statement 3 – Correct: Dissolution terminates the existence of the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha, being a permanent House, is not subject to dissolution.

Comparison of parliamentary procedures:

ProcedureMeaningAuthority
AdjournmentSuspension of a sittingPresiding officer
Adjournment sine dieEnding a sitting without specifying the next datePresiding officer
ProrogationTermination of a sessionPresident
DissolutionTermination of the Lok SabhaPresident

UPSC perspective: Understand the impact of these procedures on pending Bills, motions and parliamentary business.

Q9. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Statement 1 – Correct: Black soils are widely associated with the Deccan Trap region and the weathering of basaltic rocks.

Statement 2 – Correct: Their high clay content gives them considerable moisture-retention capacity.

Statement 3 – Correct: During dry conditions, these soils shrink and develop deep cracks. This phenomenon is associated with their expansive clay minerals, particularly montmorillonite.

Characteristics of black soils:

  • Generally dark in colour.
  • High clay content.
  • High moisture-retention capacity.
  • Develop cracks during dry periods.
  • Often suitable for cotton cultivation.

Distribution: Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh and parts of Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

UPSC perspective: Study the relationship between parent material, soil characteristics, climatic conditions and agricultural suitability.

Q10. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Laterite soils develop under conditions of high temperature and heavy rainfall, which promote intense chemical weathering.

Statement 2 – Correct: Intense leaching removes soluble minerals and nutrients from the upper layers of the soil.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Laterite soils are generally poor in humus and major plant nutrients due to intense leaching. Their natural fertility is often limited, although suitable management can improve agricultural productivity.

Characteristics of laterite soils:

  • High iron and aluminium oxide content.
  • Formation under intense leaching conditions.
  • Often acidic in nature.
  • Generally low in nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter.
  • Found in parts of the Western Ghats, Eastern Ghats and northeastern India.

Agricultural uses: With appropriate soil management, irrigation and nutrient supplementation, crops such as tea, coffee, cashew and rubber can be cultivated in suitable lateritic regions.

UPSC perspective: Compare laterite soils with black soils, alluvial soils and red soils.


Section IV: Self-Assessment

ScorePerformance
17–20Excellent conceptual understanding
13–16Good preparation; revise weak areas
9–12Moderate preparation; strengthen fundamentals
Below 9Significant revision required

These are indicative practice benchmarks and not official UPSC cut-offs.

Section V: Topics for Revision

Candidates should revise the following subjects based on today’s practice set:

  1. Finance Commission – Article 280 and fiscal federalism.
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy – Articles 36–51.
  3. National Income Accounting – GDP, GVA and GDP deflator.
  4. Monetary Policy – RBI instruments and liquidity management.
  5. ENSO – El Niño, La Niña and Indian monsoon.
  6. Convention on Biological Diversity – Objectives and protocols.
  7. CRISPR-Cas9 – Gene-editing mechanisms and applications.
  8. Parliamentary Procedures – Adjournment, prorogation and dissolution.
  9. Indian Soils – Black soil characteristics and distribution.
  10. Laterite Soils – Formation, characteristics and agricultural significance.

Conclusion

Prelims preparation requires consistent engagement with both static concepts and contemporary developments. Understanding the logic behind every answer is more valuable than merely memorising the correct option.

Attempt each question independently, analyse incorrect options and revise the associated topics.

Samata Prelims Daily – Prepare consistently. Analyse carefully. Improve every day.

Disclaimer: These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy for educational purposes. They are not official UPSC questions.

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