UPSC Civil Services Examination – General Studies Paper I

Number of Questions: 10
Suggested Time: 15 minutes
Maximum Marks: 20

These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy. They are not official UPSC questions.

Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to parliamentary privileges in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution provides for freedom of speech in Parliament, subject to its provisions and the rules governing parliamentary proceedings.
2. Members of Parliament enjoy immunity from court proceedings in respect of anything said or any vote given by them in Parliament or its committees.
3. Parliamentary privileges are available only to elected members of the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the Inter-State Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution.
2. The President may establish such a council if it appears that public interest would be served by its establishment.
3. Its recommendations are legally binding on the Union and State Governments.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following items:

1. Export and import of goods
2. Export and import of services
3. Remittances received by households from abroad
4. Foreign direct investment into India

How many of the above are generally recorded in the current account of India’s Balance of Payments?

(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four

Q4. With reference to India’s foreign exchange reserves, consider the following statements:

1. Foreign Currency Assets constitute a major component of India’s foreign exchange reserves.
2. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) allocated by the International Monetary Fund form part of India’s foreign exchange reserves.
3. India’s reserve position in the IMF is included in its foreign exchange reserves.
4. Gold holdings are excluded from India’s foreign exchange reserves.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q5. With reference to the Indian monsoon, consider the following statements:

1. The southwest monsoon reaches the Kerala coast before advancing towards other parts of India.
2. The Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch are the two major branches of the southwest monsoon.
3. The Western Ghats cause orographic rainfall on their windward side during the southwest monsoon.
4. The withdrawal of the southwest monsoon from India generally begins from the northeastern parts of the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. With reference to the Vijayanagara Empire, consider the following statements:

1. The Amara-Nayaka system was an important feature of its military and administrative organisation.
2. Amara-Nayakas were assigned territories from which they collected revenue and maintained military contingents.
3. The Vijayanagara rulers completely abolished the role of local chiefs and military intermediaries in administration.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements:

1. Green hydrogen can be produced by electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.
2. The production of green hydrogen does not involve the release of carbon dioxide from the electrolysis process itself.
3. Hydrogen produced from natural gas without carbon capture is generally classified as green hydrogen.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. With reference to the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES), consider the following statements:

1. Appendix I includes species threatened with extinction and generally prohibits commercial international trade in their specimens, subject to limited exceptions.
2. Appendix II includes species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade is regulated.
3. Appendix III includes species protected in at least one country that has requested assistance from other CITES parties in controlling trade.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to DNA fingerprinting, consider the following statements:

1. It is based on the analysis of variations in specific regions of DNA.
2. Short Tandem Repeats (STRs) are commonly used in modern forensic DNA profiling.
3. DNA profiles of identical twins are generally distinguishable through conventional forensic DNA profiling.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to the anti-defection provisions of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. The Tenth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
2. The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the President of India in consultation with the Election Commission.
3. A member may be disqualified for voluntarily giving up membership of the political party on whose ticket the member was elected.
4. The merger exception under the Tenth Schedule requires the support of at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party concerned.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Section II: Answer Key

Question	Correct answer
1	(a)
2	(a)
3	(c)
4	(a)
5	(b)
6	(a)
7	(a)
8	(d)
9	(a)
10	(b)

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Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provision: Article 105

Article 105 provides for the powers, privileges and immunities of Parliament and its members.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Members enjoy freedom of speech in Parliament, subject to the Constitution and the rules and standing orders regulating parliamentary proceedings.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Members are protected from court proceedings in respect of anything said or any vote given in Parliament or its committees.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Parliamentary privileges are not restricted to elected members alone. They extend to members of both Houses, including nominated members, and to other persons entitled to participate in parliamentary proceedings under the Constitution.

Article 194 contains corresponding provisions relating to the State Legislatures.

Prelims takeaway: Distinguish parliamentary privileges under Article 105 from legislative privileges under Article 194.

Q2. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provision: Article 263

Article 263 provides for the establishment of an Inter-State Council.

The President may establish such a council if it appears that public interest would be served by doing so. Its functions may include:

• Inquiring into and advising upon disputes between States.
• Investigating and discussing subjects of common interest between the Union and States.
• Making recommendations for better coordination of policy and action.
• Statement 1 – Correct: Article 263 provides the constitutional basis.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Establishment is at the discretion of the President based on the public-interest requirement.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Council is primarily a recommendatory and consultative institution. Its recommendations are not automatically legally binding.

The Sarkaria Commission recommended strengthening the Inter-State Council as an institutional mechanism for cooperative federalism.

Prelims takeaway: The Inter-State Council promotes coordination and cooperative federalism; it is not a judicial body.

Q3. Correct Answer: (c) – Only three

Concept: Balance of Payments

The current account broadly records transactions involving goods, services, primary income and secondary income between residents and non-residents.

• Item 1 – Included: Exports and imports of goods are recorded under merchandise trade.
• Item 2 – Included: Trade in services, including transport, travel and financial services, is recorded in the current account.
• Item 3 – Included: Personal transfers and remittances are generally recorded under secondary income.
• Item 4 – Not included: Foreign direct investment is recorded in the financial account.

Prelims takeaway: Distinguish between current-account transactions and financial-account transactions. Trade and remittances belong to the current account, whereas FDI and portfolio investment are financial-account transactions.

Q4. Correct Answer: (a) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Concept: Foreign exchange reserves

India’s foreign exchange reserves comprise:

1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA): Foreign-currency-denominated assets held by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. Gold: Monetary gold held by the RBI.
3. Special Drawing Rights (SDRs): International reserve assets created by the IMF.
4. Reserve Tranche Position in the IMF: India’s reserve position in the Fund.

• Statement 1 – Correct: FCA is a major component of India’s reserves.
• Statement 2 – Correct: SDR holdings form part of the reserves.
• Statement 3 – Correct: India’s reserve tranche position is included.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: Gold is an important component of India’s foreign exchange reserves.

Prelims takeaway: The four components are FCA, gold, SDRs and the reserve tranche position in the IMF.

Q5. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Concept: Indian monsoon system

The southwest monsoon is a major component of India’s climate system and is influenced by differential heating of land and sea, atmospheric circulation, pressure systems and ocean-atmosphere interactions.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The southwest monsoon normally sets in over Kerala around the beginning of June, before progressing across the country.
• Statement 2 – Correct: It has two major branches: the Arabian Sea branch and the Bay of Bengal branch.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The Western Ghats obstruct moisture-laden winds, producing heavy orographic rainfall on the windward side.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: The southwest monsoon generally begins withdrawing from northwestern India, not the northeastern parts.

The withdrawal is a gradual process influenced by changing atmospheric conditions.

Prelims takeaway: Remember the distinction between the onset and withdrawal patterns of the southwest monsoon.

Q6. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Historical context: Vijayanagara Empire

The Amara-Nayaka system was an important feature of the political and military organisation of the Vijayanagara Empire.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The system involved military chiefs known as Amara-Nayakas.
• Statement 2 – Correct: They were assigned territories or revenue rights and were expected to collect revenue, maintain troops and provide military support to the ruler.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Local chiefs and intermediaries continued to play important roles. The system did not completely abolish their influence.

The system helped the rulers maintain military strength across a large territory, although it also created challenges for central authority.

Prelims takeaway: The Amara-Nayaka system is particularly important for understanding Vijayanagara’s military-administrative structure.

Q7. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: Green hydrogen

Green hydrogen is produced through the electrolysis of water using renewable electricity.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Renewable electricity can power electrolysers to split water into hydrogen and oxygen.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The electrolysis reaction itself does not release carbon dioxide. The overall emissions profile nevertheless depends on the electricity source and the wider production chain.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Hydrogen produced from natural gas without carbon capture is generally classified as grey hydrogen, not green hydrogen.

Important distinction:

Type	Broad production pathway
Green hydrogen	Electrolysis using renewable electricity
Grey hydrogen	Fossil fuels, generally without carbon capture
Blue hydrogen	Fossil-fuel-based production with carbon capture and storage

Prelims takeaway: The environmental benefits of hydrogen depend significantly on the method and energy source used for its production.

Q8. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

International convention: CITES, 1973

CITES regulates international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants to ensure that such trade does not threaten their survival.

Its appendices classify species according to the level of protection and trade regulation required.

• Appendix I: Species threatened with extinction. International commercial trade is generally prohibited, subject to limited exceptions and prescribed procedures.
• Appendix II: Species that are not necessarily threatened with extinction but may become so unless trade is strictly regulated.
• Appendix III: Species protected in at least one country that has requested assistance from other CITES parties in controlling trade.

Prelims takeaway: CITES regulates international trade; it is not a general convention prohibiting all domestic use or trade in wildlife.

Q9. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: DNA fingerprinting

DNA fingerprinting is a technique used to identify individuals through variations in specific regions of their DNA.

• Statement 1 – Correct: It relies on genetic variations in selected DNA regions.
• Statement 2 – Correct: STR analysis is widely used in modern forensic DNA profiling because these repeated DNA sequences vary among individuals.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Identical twins generally have the same conventional nuclear DNA profile, making them difficult to distinguish using routine forensic DNA profiling.

Applications include:

• Criminal investigations.
• Identification of missing persons.
• Establishing biological relationships.
• Disaster victim identification.
• Wildlife conservation and species identification.

Prelims takeaway: DNA profiling is based on genetic variation, but conventional methods generally cannot distinguish identical twins.

Q10. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 3 and 4 only

Constitutional provision: Tenth Schedule

The Tenth Schedule was inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, to address political defections.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The 52nd Amendment introduced the anti-defection provisions.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: The decision on disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is made by the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned House, subject to judicial review. The President’s role under Article 103 concerns disqualification on specified grounds under Article 102, not ordinary anti-defection cases.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Voluntarily giving up membership of the political party is a ground for disqualification. The expression is interpreted in a substantive manner and is not confined to formal resignation.
• Statement 4 – Correct: The merger exception requires at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party to agree to the merger.

Prelims takeaway: The 91st Constitutional Amendment, 2003 removed the earlier provision that protected splits involving one-third of the legislature party.

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Section IV: Self-Assessment

Scoring method: Award 2 marks for every correct answer. Deduct one-third of the marks assigned to a question for every incorrect answer.

Score	Assessment
16–20	Very good conceptual understanding
12–15	Good performance; revise incorrect concepts
8–11	Moderate understanding; strengthen fundamentals
Below 8	Revisit the relevant NCERT and standard reference material

Topics to Revise

1. Parliamentary privileges – Articles 105 and 194.
2. Inter-State Council – Article 263 and cooperative federalism.
3. Balance of Payments – current account and financial account.
4. Components of India’s foreign exchange reserves.
5. Southwest monsoon – onset, branches and withdrawal.
6. Vijayanagara Empire – Amara-Nayaka system.
7. Green hydrogen and hydrogen production pathways.
8. CITES – Appendices I, II and III.
9. DNA fingerprinting and STR analysis.
10. Anti-defection law – Tenth Schedule and the 91st Amendment.

Samata IAS Academy – Preparing for the Civil Services Examination through conceptual clarity and analytical understanding.