UPSC Civil Services Examination – General Studies Paper I

Number of Questions: 10
Suggested Time: 15 minutes
Maximum Marks: 20

These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy. They are not official UPSC questions.

Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India, consider the following statements:

1. It extends to disputes between the Government of India and one or more States.
2. It extends to disputes between two or more States.
3. It includes disputes between a State and a private citizen of another State.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

1. It provides for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.
2. Autonomous District Councils may make laws on specified subjects such as land, forests and customary practices.
3. All laws made by Autonomous District Councils come into force without requiring any approval from the Governor.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Consumer Price Index (CPI) and Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India:

1. CPI measures changes in the prices of goods and services consumed by households.
2. WPI includes services as a major component of its price basket.
3. The Reserve Bank of India uses CPI inflation as the principal measure for its flexible inflation-targeting framework.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding fiscal indicators:

1. Fiscal deficit represents the excess of total expenditure over revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts.
2. Revenue deficit indicates that the government’s revenue expenditure exceeds its revenue receipts.
3. Primary deficit is obtained by subtracting interest payments from the fiscal deficit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to ocean currents, consider the following statements:

1. Cold ocean currents generally reduce the temperature of the adjoining coastal regions.
2. Upwelling brings nutrient-rich deep water towards the ocean surface.
3. The meeting of warm and cold ocean currents can create favourable fishing grounds.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. With reference to Sangam literature, consider the following statements:

1. The Tolkappiyam is an important work dealing with Tamil grammar and poetics.
2. The Ettuthokai and Pattuppattu are major collections of Sangam literature.
3. Sangam literature provides information exclusively about religious practices and does not contain references to economic and social life.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to semiconductor technology, consider the following statements:

1. Silicon is widely used in semiconductor manufacturing because its electrical conductivity can be controlled through doping.
2. Photolithography is used to transfer circuit patterns onto semiconductor wafers.
3. Doping involves introducing controlled impurities into a semiconductor to modify its electrical properties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. With reference to the National Green Tribunal (NGT), consider the following statements:

1. It was established under an Act of Parliament.
2. It is guided by the principles of sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle.
3. Its jurisdiction covers every type of civil dispute, including ordinary contractual disputes between private parties.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to the World Trade Organization (WTO) Agreement on Agriculture, consider the following statements:

1. The Amber Box covers domestic support measures considered to distort agricultural trade.
2. The Green Box covers certain forms of domestic support that are considered to have minimal or no trade-distorting effects.
3. All forms of agricultural subsidies provided by developing countries are automatically exempt from WTO disciplines.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to the National Emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. It may be proclaimed on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
2. The President can issue a proclamation only on the basis of the written advice of the Union Cabinet.
3. A proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Section II: Answer Key

Question	Correct answer
1	(a)
2	(a)
3	(b)
4	(d)
5	(d)
6	(a)
7	(d)
8	(a)
9	(a)
10	(d)

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Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provision: Article 131.

The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in certain disputes involving the Union and States, or disputes between States, provided the dispute involves a question on which the existence or extent of a legal right depends.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Disputes between the Government of India and one or more States fall within Article 131.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Disputes between two or more States are also covered.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: A dispute between a State and a private individual does not ordinarily fall within the original jurisdiction under Article 131.

Prelims takeaway: Article 131 concerns specified federal disputes involving governments, not ordinary private disputes.

Q2. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provision: Sixth Schedule, Articles 244(2) and 275(1).

The Sixth Schedule provides a special administrative framework for specified tribal areas in four north-eastern States: Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

• Statement 1 – Correct: These are the four States covered by the Sixth Schedule.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Autonomous District Councils and Regional Councils have legislative powers over specified subjects, including land, management of forests other than reserved forests, shifting cultivation and certain customary matters.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The laws made by District and Regional Councils are subject to the applicable approval or assent requirements under the Sixth Schedule. They do not automatically come into force without the prescribed constitutional process.

Prelims takeaway: Do not confuse the Sixth Schedule with the Fifth Schedule. The Sixth Schedule provides autonomous councils in specified tribal areas of four north-eastern States.

Q3. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 3 only

Concept: Measurement of inflation.

• Statement 1 – Correct: CPI tracks changes in the retail prices of a basket of goods and services consumed by households.
• Statement 2 – Incorrect: India’s WPI measures price changes at the wholesale level and does not include services as a major component.
• Statement 3 – Correct: India’s flexible inflation-targeting framework uses CPI inflation, specifically the all-India CPI Combined.

The distinction is important because CPI reflects the prices faced by consumers, whereas WPI captures price movements at the wholesale level.

Prelims takeaway: The RBI’s inflation target is based on CPI Combined, not WPI.

Q4. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

Concept: Government budgetary indicators.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Fiscal deficit = Total expenditure – (Revenue receipts + Non-debt capital receipts).
• Statement 2 – Correct: Revenue deficit = Revenue expenditure – Revenue receipts.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Primary deficit = Fiscal deficit – Interest payments.

These indicators reveal different dimensions of government borrowing and expenditure.

Indicator	What it indicates
Fiscal deficit	Overall borrowing requirement of the government
Revenue deficit	Excess of revenue expenditure over revenue receipts
Primary deficit	Fiscal deficit excluding interest payments

Prelims takeaway: A high primary deficit indicates that current-year borrowing needs remain substantial even after excluding interest obligations arising from past borrowing.

Q5. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

Concept: Ocean circulation and coastal geography.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Cold currents generally cool adjoining coastal areas and may contribute to arid conditions along some western continental margins.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Upwelling is the upward movement of colder, nutrient-rich water from deeper ocean layers.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The mixing of warm and cold currents, along with upwelling, can create nutrient-rich waters that support plankton and fish populations.

Examples include the fishing grounds associated with the meeting of the warm Gulf Stream and cold Labrador Current near the Grand Banks of Newfoundland.

Prelims takeaway: Ocean currents influence coastal climate, marine ecosystems, fisheries and navigation.

Q6. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Historical context: Ancient Tamilakam.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Tolkappiyam is an early Tamil grammatical work that also deals with poetics and aspects of literary convention.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Ettuthokai (Eight Anthologies) and Pattuppattu (Ten Idylls) are important collections of Sangam literature.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Sangam literature provides valuable information on political authority, warfare, trade, agriculture, social relationships, occupations, landscapes and religious practices.

Sangam texts are particularly useful for reconstructing the social and economic life of ancient south India.

Prelims takeaway: Sangam literature is an important source for understanding early historic Tamil society and the political formations of the Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas.

Q7. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

Concept: Semiconductor manufacturing.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Silicon is widely used because its electrical properties can be controlled, making it suitable for the manufacture of electronic components.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Photolithography transfers intricate circuit patterns onto a wafer using light-sensitive materials and patterned exposure.
• Statement 3 – Correct: Doping introduces controlled impurities into a semiconductor to alter its electrical conductivity.

Doping produces two important types of semiconductor materials:

• N-type: Formed by introducing donor impurities that provide additional electrons.
• P-type: Formed by introducing acceptor impurities that create holes.

Prelims takeaway: Semiconductor fabrication involves several stages, including wafer preparation, oxidation, photolithography, etching, doping, deposition and packaging.

Q8. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Legal basis: National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The NGT was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Tribunal applies principles including sustainable development, the precautionary principle and the polluter pays principle.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The NGT is a specialised tribunal dealing with specified civil cases involving substantial questions relating to the environment and the implementation of environmental laws. It is not a general civil court for all contractual disputes.

The NGT plays an important role in environmental adjudication by providing a specialised forum for environmental disputes.

Prelims takeaway: The NGT’s jurisdiction is statutory and subject-specific; it does not extend to every category of civil dispute.

Q9. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: WTO Agreement on Agriculture.

• Statement 1 – Correct: Amber Box measures are domestic support measures considered to distort agricultural production and trade. They are subject to reduction commitments, subject to applicable exemptions and thresholds.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Green Box measures are considered to have no, or at most minimal, trade-distorting effects and are exempt from reduction commitments if they satisfy the prescribed criteria.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Developing countries are not automatically exempt from all agricultural subsidy disciplines. The Agreement provides specific provisions, exemptions and de minimis limits, but these operate within the WTO framework.

The Agreement also recognises the Blue Box, which covers certain production-limiting support measures linked to conditions such as fixed areas or yields.

Prelims takeaway: Understand the distinction between Amber, Blue and Green Box support, particularly in the context of India’s agricultural subsidy negotiations.

Q10. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

Constitutional provision: Article 352.

• Statement 1 – Correct: National Emergency may be proclaimed on the grounds of war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Following the 44th Constitutional Amendment, the President can issue a proclamation only after receiving the written decision of the Union Cabinet.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The proclamation must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month. Approval requires a special majority: a majority of the total membership of each House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting.

Once approved, the proclamation continues for six months at a time, subject to further parliamentary approval.

Prelims takeaway: The 44th Constitutional Amendment introduced safeguards against the arbitrary use of Emergency powers.

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Section IV: Self-Assessment

Scoring method: Award 2 marks for every correct answer. Deduct one-third of the marks assigned to a question for every incorrect answer.

Performance	Assessment
16–20 marks	Very good conceptual understanding
12–15 marks	Good performance; revise incorrect concepts
8–11 marks	Moderate understanding; strengthen fundamentals
Below 8 marks	Revisit the relevant NCERT and standard reference material

Topics to Revise

1. Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction – Article 131.
2. Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution.
3. CPI, WPI and India’s inflation-targeting framework.
4. Fiscal deficit, revenue deficit and primary deficit.
5. Ocean currents, upwelling and fishing grounds.
6. Sangam literature and early historic south India.
7. Semiconductor fabrication and doping.
8. National Green Tribunal and environmental principles.
9. WTO Agreement on Agriculture – Amber, Blue and Green Boxes.
10. National Emergency and the 44th Constitutional Amendment.

Samata IAS Academy – Preparing for the Civil Services Examination through conceptual clarity and analytical understanding.