Samata IAS Academy | Samata Prelims Daily
Date: 2 November 2026
Practice Set: 003
Examination: UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination
Paper: General Studies Paper I
Number of Questions: 10
Introduction
The Civil Services Preliminary Examination requires aspirants to develop a comprehensive understanding of constitutional institutions, economic concepts, historical developments, geographical processes, environmental issues and emerging technologies.
Under Samata Prelims Daily, Samata IAS Academy provides original practice questions designed to develop conceptual clarity, analytical reasoning and the ability to eliminate incorrect options.
Today’s set covers constitutional bodies, anti-defection provisions, external sector economics, agricultural pricing, physical geography, biodiversity, navigation technology, parliamentary procedures, ancient Indian history and wetland ecosystems.
Instructions for candidates
- Attempt all ten questions before referring to the answer key.
- Each question carries 2 marks for practice purposes.
- Negative marking: one-third of the marks assigned to a question for every incorrect answer.
- No negative marking for unanswered questions.
- Suggested time: 15 minutes.
Maximum marks: 20 | Suggested time: 15 minutes
Section I: Practice Questions
Q1. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:
- The CAG is appointed by the President of India.
- The CAG can be removed from office only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
- Reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the Governor of the concerned State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q2. With reference to the anti-defection provisions of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:
- A member of a political party may be disqualified if the member voluntarily gives up the membership of that political party.
- A member may be disqualified for voting or abstaining from voting contrary to the direction issued by the political party, without prior permission, unless the action is condoned within fifteen days.
- An independent member of a legislature becomes liable for disqualification if the member joins a political party after election.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q3. With reference to India’s Balance of Payments (BoP), consider the following statements:
- The current account includes transactions relating to goods, services, primary income and secondary income.
- Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is recorded in the financial account.
- A current account surplus indicates that current account receipts exceed current account payments during the accounting period.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4. With reference to the Minimum Support Price (MSP) mechanism in India, consider the following statements:
- The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP) recommends MSPs for agricultural crops.
- The Government of India announces MSPs for 22 mandated crops.
- MSP is a universally enforceable legal guarantee that requires every private trader to purchase every notified crop from every farmer at the announced price.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q5. With reference to the Coriolis force, consider the following statements:
- It deflects moving objects towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
- It is zero at the Equator.
- It influences the direction of moving air masses and ocean currents but does not independently determine their speed.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q6. With reference to biodiversity hotspots, consider the following statements:
- A region must contain at least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants to qualify as a biodiversity hotspot.
- A region must have lost at least 70 per cent of its original natural vegetation to qualify as a biodiversity hotspot.
- India forms part of four biodiversity hotspots.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q7. With reference to India’s Navigation with Indian Constellation (NavIC), consider the following statements:
- It is designed to provide positioning, navigation and timing services over India and a region extending approximately 1,500 kilometres beyond its boundaries.
- It is an indigenous regional satellite navigation system developed by ISRO.
- It is designed to provide worldwide navigation coverage in the same manner as GPS.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q8. With reference to the ordinance-making power of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- The President can promulgate an ordinance when both Houses of Parliament are not in session, subject to the constitutional conditions.
- An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament while it remains in operation.
- An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is approved earlier or otherwise ceases to operate.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q9. With reference to the inscriptions of Ashoka, consider the following statements:
- Major Rock Edict XIII describes the Kalinga War and Ashoka’s remorse over the suffering caused by it.
- All Ashokan inscriptions were composed exclusively in Sanskrit.
- Ashoka’s concept of Dhamma emphasised ethical and social conduct and was not merely a propagation of Buddhist religious doctrine.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the ecological functions of wetlands:
- Wetlands can act as natural flood buffers by storing and slowing the movement of excess water.
- Wetlands can contribute to carbon sequestration and storage.
- Wetlands can improve water quality by trapping sediments and retaining certain pollutants and nutrients.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Section II: Answer Key
| Question | Correct answer | Subject |
|---|---|---|
| 1 | (a) | Indian Polity |
| 2 | (d) | Indian Polity |
| 3 | (d) | Indian Economy |
| 4 | (a) | Indian Economy |
| 5 | (d) | Geography |
| 6 | (d) | Environment |
| 7 | (a) | Science and Technology |
| 8 | (d) | Indian Polity |
| 9 | (c) | Ancient Indian History |
| 10 | (d) | Environment |
Section III: Detailed Explanations
Q1. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 – Correct: Article 148 of the Constitution provides that the Comptroller and Auditor General of India shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
Statement 2 – Correct: The CAG can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. This provides institutional protection and safeguards the independence of the office.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: Reports of the CAG relating to the accounts of the Union are submitted to the President, who causes them to be laid before each House of Parliament.
Reports relating to the accounts of a State are submitted to the Governor, who causes them to be laid before the State Legislature.
Additional information for Prelims:
- Article 148: Office of the CAG.
- Article 149: Duties and powers of the CAG.
- Article 150: Form of accounts of the Union and States.
- Article 151: Audit reports.
- The CAG is an important institution for ensuring financial accountability and legislative oversight.
UPSC connection: Understand the relationship between the CAG, Public Accounts Committee and parliamentary financial control.
Q2. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
The anti-defection provisions are contained in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution. They were introduced through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985.
Statement 1 – Correct: A member of a political party may be disqualified if the member voluntarily gives up membership of that party. The expression is not restricted to formal resignation and may be inferred from the member’s conduct.
Statement 2 – Correct: A member may be disqualified for voting or abstaining contrary to the direction of the political party or a person authorised by it, without prior permission, unless the action is condoned within fifteen days.
Statement 3 – Correct: An independent member of a House becomes disqualified if the member joins any political party after election.
Important provisions:
| Provision | Disqualification condition |
|---|---|
| Paragraph 2(1)(a) | Voluntarily giving up membership of political party |
| Paragraph 2(1)(b) | Voting or abstaining contrary to party direction without permission and without subsequent condonation |
| Paragraph 2(2) | Independent member joining a political party after election |
| Paragraph 2(3) | Nominated member joining a political party after six months from taking seat |
Merger exception: The Tenth Schedule recognises a merger when at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to the merger.
The original provision permitting protection for a split involving one-third of the members was removed by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
Judicial review: The decision of the Speaker or Chairman under the Tenth Schedule is subject to judicial review, as established in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992).
Q3. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
The Balance of Payments is a systematic record of economic transactions between residents of a country and the rest of the world during a specified period.
Statement 1 – Correct: The current account comprises four broad categories:
- Goods.
- Services.
- Primary income, such as compensation of employees and investment income.
- Secondary income, such as personal transfers and remittances.
Statement 2 – Correct: Foreign Direct Investment is recorded in the financial account of the Balance of Payments.
Statement 3 – Correct: A current account surplus occurs when total current account credits exceed total current account debits.
Broad components of the Balance of Payments:
| Component | Major transactions |
|---|---|
| Current Account | Goods, services, primary and secondary income |
| Capital Account | Capital transfers and transactions in non-produced, non-financial assets |
| Financial Account | FDI, portfolio investment, loans and other financial flows |
Important distinction:
- FDI generally represents a lasting interest and significant influence in an enterprise.
- Foreign Portfolio Investment involves investment in financial securities without the same degree of management influence.
UPSC connection: Link the current account deficit with exchange rates, foreign exchange reserves, capital inflows and external sector stability.
Q4. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 – Correct: The Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices recommends MSPs for agricultural crops to the Government of India.
The recommendations consider factors such as cost of production, demand and supply, domestic and international prices, inter-crop price parity and the likely effect on the economy.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Central Government announces MSPs for 22 mandated crops, comprising 14 kharif crops, six rabi crops and two other commercial crops. Sugarcane is governed separately through the Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) mechanism.
Statement 3 – Incorrect: MSP is not a universally enforceable statutory guarantee requiring every private trader to purchase every notified crop from every farmer at the announced price.
The government undertakes procurement operations for specified crops under applicable schemes and procurement arrangements.
Additional information:
The major objectives of MSP include:
- Protecting farmers against excessive price fluctuations.
- Providing an indicative price signal before sowing.
- Encouraging agricultural production.
- Supporting food security and public procurement.
- Reducing distress sales, particularly during periods of surplus production.
UPSC connection: Study MSP alongside food procurement, buffer stocks, food subsidies, agricultural marketing reforms and the WTO Agreement on Agriculture.
Q5. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
The Coriolis force is an apparent force arising from the rotation of the Earth. It influences the movement of air and water across the Earth’s surface.
Statement 1 – Correct: Moving objects are deflected towards the right in the Northern Hemisphere and towards the left in the Southern Hemisphere.
Statement 2 – Correct: The Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator because the sine of latitude is zero.
Statement 3 – Correct: The Coriolis force influences the direction of moving objects but does not independently determine their speed.
Importance in geography:
- Influences the direction of global wind systems.
- Affects the circulation of ocean currents.
- Influences the rotation of cyclones.
- Contributes to large-scale atmospheric and oceanic circulation.
Important distinction: The Coriolis force does not initiate wind movement. Pressure-gradient force is a major driver of atmospheric motion, while the Coriolis effect modifies its direction.
Q6. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
The concept of biodiversity hotspots was developed by environmental scientist Norman Myers.
To qualify as a biodiversity hotspot, a region must satisfy two criteria:
- It must contain at least 1,500 endemic species of vascular plants.
- It must have lost at least 70 per cent of its original natural vegetation.
Biodiversity hotspots in India:
India forms part of four biodiversity hotspots:
| Biodiversity hotspot | Indian regions covered |
|---|---|
| Himalaya | Himalayan region |
| Indo-Burma | Northeastern India and adjoining areas |
| Western Ghats–Sri Lanka | Western Ghats region |
| Sundaland | Nicobar Islands |
Importance of biodiversity hotspots:
- Concentration of endemic species.
- High conservation priority.
- Significant ecological vulnerability.
- Need for habitat protection and restoration.
UPSC connection: Distinguish between biodiversity hotspots, biosphere reserves, national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and Ramsar Sites.
Q7. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only
Statement 1 – Correct: NavIC is designed to provide positioning, navigation and timing services over India and an area extending approximately 1,500 kilometres beyond its boundaries.
Statement 2 – Correct: NavIC is an indigenous regional satellite navigation system developed by the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Statement 3 – Incorrect: NavIC is a regional navigation system and is not designed to provide worldwide coverage in the same manner as the Global Positioning System (GPS).
Important information:
- NavIC was formerly known as the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS).
- It provides Standard Positioning Service for civilian users.
- It also provides a Restricted Service for authorised users.
- Its applications include terrestrial, aerial and marine navigation, disaster management, vehicle tracking and location-based services.
UPSC connection: Compare NavIC with GPS (USA), GLONASS (Russia), Galileo (European Union) and BeiDou (China).
Q8. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
Article 123 of the Constitution provides the President with the power to promulgate ordinances when both Houses of Parliament are not in session and circumstances require immediate action.
Statement 1 – Correct: The President may promulgate an ordinance when both Houses are not in session, subject to the constitutional conditions and the President’s satisfaction regarding the need for immediate action.
Statement 2 – Correct: An ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament while it remains in operation.
Statement 3 – Correct: An ordinance ceases to operate six weeks after the reassembly of Parliament, unless it is approved earlier or otherwise ceases to operate.
Where the Houses reassemble on different dates, the six-week period is calculated from the later date.
Additional information:
- The President may withdraw an ordinance at any time.
- An ordinance must be laid before both Houses.
- Parliament may disapprove an ordinance.
- The ordinance-making power is subject to judicial review.
Important distinction: Article 123 deals with the ordinance-making power of the President, while Article 213 provides a corresponding power to State Governors.
Q9. Correct Answer: (c) – 1 and 3 only
Statement 1 – Correct: Major Rock Edict XIII describes the Kalinga War, the suffering caused by the war and Ashoka’s remorse.
It also reflects Ashoka’s subsequent emphasis on Dhamma and the moral conquest of people rather than conquest through warfare.
Statement 2 – Incorrect: Ashokan inscriptions were not exclusively composed in Sanskrit. Most were written in Prakrit using Brahmi script. In the northwestern regions, Kharosthi was also used. Some inscriptions in Afghanistan used Greek and Aramaic.
Statement 3 – Correct: Ashoka’s Dhamma was a broad ethical and social framework emphasising moral conduct, compassion, respect for elders, tolerance and concern for living beings. It should not be understood as merely an attempt to propagate Buddhism as a religious doctrine.
Important information for Prelims:
- Major Rock Edict XIII – Kalinga War and Ashoka’s remorse.
- Major Rock Edict XII – Religious tolerance and respect for different sects.
- Major Rock Edict I – Prohibition of animal sacrifices and certain forms of animal slaughter.
- Pillar Edicts – Important information about Ashoka’s administration and Dhamma.
UPSC connection: Study Mauryan administration, Ashokan inscriptions, Dhamma Mahamatras and the spread of Buddhism.
Q10. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3
All three statements are correct.
Wetlands are important ecological systems that provide a wide range of ecosystem services.
Statement 1 – Correct: Wetlands act as natural buffers by storing excess water and reducing the speed of water movement. They can therefore reduce flood peaks in suitable geographical settings.
Statement 2 – Correct: Wetlands, particularly peatlands and certain other carbon-rich wetland ecosystems, store significant quantities of carbon. Their degradation can release stored carbon into the atmosphere.
Statement 3 – Correct: Wetlands can improve water quality by trapping sediments and retaining or transforming certain pollutants and nutrients through physical, chemical and biological processes.
Major ecological functions of wetlands:
- Flood regulation.
- Groundwater recharge in suitable settings.
- Carbon sequestration and storage.
- Water purification.
- Habitat for migratory birds.
- Support for fisheries and livelihoods.
- Conservation of aquatic biodiversity.
Important distinction: Wetland ecosystems are not merely water bodies. They are ecologically distinct systems characterised by the interaction of water, soil and biological communities.
UPSC connection: Study the Ramsar Convention, Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2017, mangroves, peatlands and the role of wetlands in climate change mitigation.
Section IV: Self-Assessment
| Score | Performance |
|---|---|
| 17–20 | Excellent conceptual understanding |
| 13–16 | Good preparation; revise weak areas |
| 9–12 | Moderate preparation; strengthen fundamentals |
| Below 9 | Significant revision required |
These are indicative practice benchmarks, not official UPSC cut-offs.
Section V: Important Topics for Revision
- CAG – Constitutional provisions, appointment, removal and functions.
- Anti-defection law – Tenth Schedule and judicial interpretation.
- Balance of Payments – Current account and financial account.
- MSP – CACP, procurement and agricultural price policy.
- Coriolis force – Global atmospheric and oceanic circulation.
- Biodiversity hotspots – Criteria and Indian hotspots.
- NavIC – India’s regional satellite navigation system.
- Ordinance-making power – Articles 123 and 213.
- Ashokan inscriptions – Rock edicts, pillar edicts and Dhamma.
- Wetlands – Ecological functions and conservation.
Conclusion
Consistent practice is essential for developing the analytical and conceptual abilities required for the Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Candidates should focus not only on identifying correct answers but also on understanding the reasoning behind every statement and option.
Samata Prelims Daily – Prepare consistently. Analyse carefully. Improve every day.
Disclaimer: These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy for educational purposes. They are not official UPSC questions.