UPSC Civil Services Examination – General Studies Paper I

Number of Questions: 10
Suggested Time: 15 minutes
Maximum Marks: 20

These are original practice questions prepared by Samata IAS Academy. They are not official UPSC questions.

Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), consider the following statements:

1. The CAG is appointed by the President of India by warrant under his hand and seal.
2. The CAG can be removed from office in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court.
3. After demitting office, the CAG is eligible for further office under the Government of India or any State Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, consider the following statements:

1. It is constituted by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution.
2. It recommends the distribution of the net proceeds of certain taxes between the Union and the States.
3. Its recommendations are automatically binding on the Union Government.
4. It also recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the GDP deflator:

1. It measures the prices of all domestically produced final goods and services included in GDP.
2. Unlike the Consumer Price Index, it is not based on a fixed basket of goods and services.
3. It includes the prices of imported goods and services consumed within the domestic economy.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the Himalayan river system, consider the following statements:

1. The Indus, Sutlej and Brahmaputra are examples of antecedent rivers.
2. Antecedent rivers are those that existed before the upliftment of the mountain ranges through which they flow.
3. Such rivers may cut deep gorges while maintaining their courses across rising mountain ranges.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. With reference to the Buddhist Councils, consider the following statements:

1. The First Buddhist Council was held at Rajagriha under the patronage of Ajatashatru.
2. The Second Buddhist Council was held at Vaishali and is associated with disputes over monastic discipline.
3. The Third Buddhist Council was held at Pataliputra during the reign of Ashoka.
4. The Third Buddhist Council is traditionally associated with the compilation of the Buddhist canon in Sanskrit.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q6. With reference to international efforts to protect the ozone layer, consider the following statements:

1. The Montreal Protocol was adopted in 1987 to phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances.
2. The Kigali Amendment provides for the phase-down of hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs).
3. HFCs are major ozone-depleting substances responsible for the formation of the Antarctic ozone hole.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. With reference to quantum computing, consider the following statements:

1. A quantum bit or qubit can exist in a superposition of states.
2. Quantum entanglement is a phenomenon in which quantum systems can exhibit correlations that cannot be explained by classical physics.
3. Quantum computers are expected to perform every computational task faster than classical computers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. With reference to the Lokpal in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Lokpal is a statutory institution established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
2. Its jurisdiction includes the Prime Minister, subject to specified statutory safeguards and exclusions.
3. The Lokpal is a constitutional body established under Article 324 of the Constitution.
4. The Act provides for the establishment of Lokayuktas in the States.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q9. With reference to the Paris Agreement on climate change, consider the following statements:

1. It was adopted under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).
2. It seeks to hold the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit it to 1.5°C.
3. All countries are required to achieve identical emission-reduction targets under the Agreement.
4. Parties are required to communicate successive nationally determined contributions (NDCs), with each successive contribution representing progression beyond the previous one.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q10. With reference to Biosphere Reserves, consider the following statements:

1. The UNESCO Man and the Biosphere Programme promotes the establishment and functioning of Biosphere Reserves.
2. The core zone of a Biosphere Reserve is devoted to long-term protection of ecosystems and biodiversity.
3. The buffer zone may permit activities compatible with conservation objectives, including research, education and certain regulated uses.
4. The transition zone is intended to accommodate sustainable human activities and development.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Section II: Answer Key

Question	Correct answer
1	(a)
2	(b)
3	(a)
4	(d)
5	(b)
6	(a)
7	(a)
8	(b)
9	(b)
10	(d)

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Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Constitutional provisions: Articles 148 and 149

The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is an independent constitutional authority responsible for auditing the accounts of the Union and the States and performing other functions prescribed by Parliament.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The CAG is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The CAG can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. This provides security of tenure and protects institutional independence.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Under Article 148(4), the CAG is not eligible for any further office under the Government of India or any State Government after ceasing to hold office.

The CAG submits reports relating to the accounts of the Union to the President and those relating to the accounts of a State to its Governor. These reports are laid before the respective legislatures.

Prelims takeaway: The CAG is a constitutional authority, and the constitutional restrictions on removal and post-retirement employment are important safeguards of independence.

Q2. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 4 only

Constitutional provision: Article 280

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body that recommends the distribution of financial resources between the Union and the States.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The President constitutes the Finance Commission every five years or earlier, as considered necessary.
• Statement 2 – Correct: It recommends the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes that are to be divided between them, and the allocation among the States.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The recommendations are advisory in nature and are not automatically binding on the Union Government.
• Statement 4 – Correct: The Commission recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities, based on the recommendations of the respective State Finance Commissions.

Prelims takeaway: The Finance Commission is a constitutional mechanism for fiscal federalism. Do not confuse its recommendations with legally binding judicial decisions.

Q3. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: GDP deflator

The GDP deflator measures the change in the prices of all domestically produced final goods and services included in GDP.

[
\text{GDP Deflator} =
\frac{\text{Nominal GDP}}{\text{Real GDP}}\times 100
]

• Statement 1 – Correct: It covers domestically produced final goods and services, providing a broad measure of price changes in domestic output.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Unlike CPI, the GDP deflator does not use a fixed basket. Its coverage and weights change with the composition of current domestic production.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Imported goods and services are not part of domestic production and are therefore excluded from the GDP deflator.

GDP deflator versus CPI

GDP deflator	Consumer Price Index
Covers domestically produced final output	Covers a representative basket consumed by households
Excludes imports	May include imported consumer goods
Weights change with production composition	Uses a defined consumer basket and its weighting structure
Broad measure of domestic output prices	Measures retail-level consumer price changes

Prelims takeaway: The GDP deflator is a broad domestic output price index, whereas CPI measures changes in the prices faced by consumers.

Q4. Correct Answer: (d) – All three

Concept: Antecedent drainage

Antecedent rivers are rivers that existed before the upliftment of the mountain ranges through which they currently flow.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The Indus, Sutlej and Brahmaputra are commonly cited examples of antecedent rivers in the Himalayan region.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Their courses predate significant phases of mountain uplift.
• Statement 3 – Correct: As the mountains rise, these rivers may maintain their courses by eroding downwards, creating deep gorges.

This process explains how some major rivers cut across the Himalayan mountain system rather than simply following the direction of the mountain ranges.

Prelims takeaway: Distinguish antecedent drainage from consequent, subsequent and superimposed drainage patterns.

Q5. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 3 only

Historical context: Buddhist Councils

Buddhist Councils were held to discuss monastic discipline, preserve teachings and address differences within the Buddhist community.

• Statement 1 – Correct: The First Buddhist Council is traditionally associated with Rajagriha (Rajgir), shortly after the Buddha’s death, under the patronage of Ajatashatru. It is associated with Mahakassapa.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Second Council was held at Vaishali and is associated with disagreements concerning monastic discipline.
• Statement 3 – Correct: The Third Council was held at Pataliputra during the reign of Ashoka and is traditionally associated with Moggaliputta Tissa.
• Statement 4 – Incorrect: The Third Council is not traditionally described as compiling the Buddhist canon in Sanskrit. The Pali tradition associates it with the consolidation and purification of the Buddhist teaching.

Prelims takeaway: Remember the sequence and the historical associations of the first three Buddhist Councils. Accounts of later councils differ across Buddhist traditions.

Q6. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

International agreements: Vienna Convention, Montreal Protocol and Kigali Amendment

• Statement 1 – Correct: The Montreal Protocol was adopted in 1987 to control and phase out the production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances such as chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs).
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Kigali Amendment, adopted in 2016, provides for the phasedown of HFCs.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: HFCs do not significantly deplete the ozone layer. They are primarily addressed because many have high global warming potential and contribute to climate change.

The Montreal Protocol is widely regarded as an important example of successful international environmental cooperation.

Prelims takeaway: CFCs are ozone-depleting substances; HFCs were adopted as substitutes but are potent greenhouse gases. The Kigali Amendment addresses their phasedown.

Q7. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Concept: Quantum computing

Quantum computing uses principles of quantum mechanics to process information.

• Statement 1 – Correct: A qubit can exist in a superposition of quantum states, unlike a classical bit, which is represented as either 0 or 1.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Quantum entanglement creates correlations between quantum systems that cannot be explained by classical physics.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Quantum computers are not expected to outperform classical computers in every task. Their potential advantage is limited to particular classes of problems and depends on the algorithm, hardware and error correction.

Potential applications include quantum simulation, selected optimisation problems, cryptography-related research and materials science.

Prelims takeaway: Superposition and entanglement are fundamental concepts, but quantum computing is not a universal replacement for classical computing.

Q8. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 4 only

Legal basis: Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013

• Statement 1 – Correct: The Lokpal is a statutory anti-corruption institution established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
• Statement 2 – Correct: The Prime Minister falls within its jurisdiction, but the Act provides specific safeguards and exclusions concerning matters such as international relations, external and internal security, public order, atomic energy and space.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Lokpal is not a constitutional body and has not been established under Article 324. Article 324 concerns the Election Commission.
• Statement 4 – Correct: The Act provides for the establishment of Lokayuktas in States, subject to the statutory framework.

The Lokpal is intended to strengthen accountability in public administration by providing an institutional mechanism for dealing with corruption allegations against specified public functionaries.

Prelims takeaway: Distinguish between constitutional bodies, statutory bodies and executive bodies. The Lokpal is statutory.

Q9. Correct Answer: (b) – 1, 2 and 4 only

International agreement: Paris Agreement, 2015

The Paris Agreement was adopted at the 21st Conference of the Parties to the UNFCCC in 2015.

• Statement 1 – Correct: It was adopted under the UNFCCC framework.
• Statement 2 – Correct: Its temperature goal is to hold the increase in global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels and pursue efforts to limit the increase to 1.5°C.
• Statement 3 – Incorrect: Countries do not have identical emission-reduction targets. Nationally Determined Contributions reflect national circumstances and capabilities.
• Statement 4 – Correct: Parties communicate successive NDCs every five years, with each successive contribution expected to represent progression and reflect the highest possible ambition.

The Agreement also recognises the principle of common but differentiated responsibilities and respective capabilities, in the light of different national circumstances.

Prelims takeaway: The Paris Agreement uses nationally determined contributions rather than imposing identical emission targets on all countries.

Q10. Correct Answer: (d) – All four

Concept: UNESCO Biosphere Reserves

The UNESCO Man and the Biosphere (MAB) Programme promotes a balanced relationship between people and nature through Biosphere Reserves.

A Biosphere Reserve generally has three interrelated zones:

1. Core zone: Strictly protected area intended for the long-term conservation of ecosystems, species and genetic diversity.
2. Buffer zone: Surrounds or adjoins the core area. It permits activities compatible with conservation, such as research, education, monitoring and certain regulated uses.
3. Transition zone: The outer area where sustainable economic and human activities are encouraged.

All four statements are correct.

Prelims takeaway: The three-zone structure reflects the effort to integrate biodiversity conservation with sustainable development and human participation.

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Section IV: Self-Assessment

Scoring method: Award 2 marks for every correct answer. Deduct one-third of the marks assigned to a question for every incorrect answer.

Score	Assessment
16–20	Very good conceptual understanding
12–15	Good performance; revise incorrect concepts
8–11	Moderate understanding; strengthen fundamentals
Below 8	Revisit the relevant NCERT and standard reference material

Topics to Revise

1. CAG – Articles 148 and 149.
2. Finance Commission – Article 280 and fiscal federalism.
3. GDP deflator and CPI.
4. Himalayan antecedent drainage.
5. Buddhist Councils and their historical associations.
6. Montreal Protocol and Kigali Amendment.
7. Quantum computing – qubits, superposition and entanglement.
8. Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013.
9. Paris Agreement and Nationally Determined Contributions.
10. UNESCO Biosphere Reserves and their three zones.

Samata IAS Academy – Preparing for the Civil Services Examination through conceptual clarity and analytical understanding.