Samata IAS Academy | Samata Prelims Daily

Date: 31 October 2026
Practice Set: 001
Examination: UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination
Subject: General Studies Paper I
Number of Questions: 10

Introduction

Success in the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination requires more than memorisation of facts. Candidates must develop conceptual clarity, the ability to interpret statements, analytical reasoning and effective elimination techniques.

Under Samata Prelims Daily, Samata IAS Academy presents a daily set of carefully designed multiple-choice questions covering different areas of the UPSC General Studies syllabus.

The questions in this series are original practice questions prepared in the pattern and difficulty range of the Civil Services Preliminary Examination. They are not reproduced UPSC Previous Year Questions.

Instructions for candidates

• Attempt all 10 questions before referring to the answer key.
• Each question carries 2 marks for practice purposes.
• Apply a negative marking of one-third of the marks assigned to a question for incorrect answers.
• There is no negative marking for unanswered questions.
• Try to complete the test within 15 minutes.

Total marks: 20 | Suggested time: 15 minutes

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Section I: Practice Questions

Q1. With reference to the Fundamental Duties under the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

1. Fundamental Duties are applicable only to citizens of India.
2. All Fundamental Duties are directly enforceable by courts through constitutional remedies.
3. It is a Fundamental Duty of parents or guardians to provide opportunities for education to their children between the ages of six and fourteen years.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q2. With reference to Money Bills in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:

1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
2. The Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill within fourteen days of receiving it.
3. The President of India can return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India:

1. The Monetary Policy Committee consists of six members.
2. Three members of the committee are appointed by the Central Government.
3. The Governor of the RBI has a casting vote in case of a tie.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q4. With reference to the Permanent Settlement introduced during British rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. It was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793.
2. It recognised zamindars as proprietors of the land, subject to payment of land revenue.
3. The land revenue demand was periodically revised according to changes in agricultural production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances:

1. They generally originate in the Mediterranean region and adjoining areas.
2. They are an important source of winter rainfall in northwestern India.
3. They contribute to snowfall in the western Himalayan region.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q6. With reference to the Ramsar Convention on Wetlands, consider the following statements:

1. It was adopted in 1971 in the Iranian city of Ramsar.
2. The convention promotes the conservation and wise use of wetlands.
3. Only wetlands located within protected areas can be designated as Ramsar Sites.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding mRNA vaccines:

1. They provide genetic instructions that enable cells to produce a specific antigen.
2. The mRNA used in these vaccines needs to integrate into the recipient’s nuclear DNA to produce an immune response.
3. They can stimulate the immune system to recognise and respond to a specific pathogen.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q8. With reference to the constitutional amendment procedure in India, consider the following statements:

1. Every constitutional amendment requires a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
2. Amendments affecting certain federal provisions also require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.
3. There is no provision for a joint sitting of Parliament to resolve a disagreement over a Constitutional Amendment Bill.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q9. With reference to the Exclusive Economic Zone (EEZ) under the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS), consider the following statements:

1. An EEZ may extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the territorial sea is measured.
2. A coastal State has sovereign rights over natural resources within its EEZ.
3. A coastal State exercises complete sovereignty over the waters of its EEZ in the same manner as its territorial sea.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q10. With reference to the Goods and Services Tax (GST) Council, consider the following statements:

1. It is a constitutional body established under Article 279A.
2. The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council.
3. Its recommendations are legally binding on the Union and State Legislatures in all circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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Section II: Answer Key

Question	Correct answer	Topic
1	(c)	Fundamental Duties
2	(b)	Money Bills
3	(d)	Monetary Policy Committee
4	(a)	Permanent Settlement
5	(d)	Western Disturbances
6	(b)	Ramsar Convention
7	(b)	mRNA Vaccines
8	(c)	Constitutional Amendment
9	(a)	Exclusive Economic Zone
10	(a)	GST Council

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Section III: Detailed Explanations

Q1. Correct Answer: (c) – 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Article 51A, contained in Part IVA of the Constitution, enumerates the Fundamental Duties of citizens. These duties are applicable to Indian citizens and not to foreigners.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: Fundamental Duties are generally non-justiciable, meaning that they cannot ordinarily be directly enforced through courts merely on the ground of their violation. However, Parliament can enact laws to give effect to particular duties. Courts may also consider Fundamental Duties while interpreting constitutional and statutory provisions.

Statement 3 – Correct: Article 51A(k) makes it a duty of every parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to their child or ward between six and fourteen years of age. This provision was introduced through the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002.

Additional information for Prelims:

• Fundamental Duties were incorporated through the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
• They were originally ten in number.
• The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added the eleventh duty.
• The idea was inspired by the Constitution of the erstwhile Soviet Union.
• They are contained in Part IVA under Article 51A.

Q2. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Under Article 109, a Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha. It cannot be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.

Statement 2 – Correct: After the Lok Sabha passes a Money Bill, it is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for recommendations. The Rajya Sabha must return the Bill within fourteen days.

The Lok Sabha may accept or reject any or all recommendations made by the Rajya Sabha. If the Rajya Sabha does not return the Bill within fourteen days, it is deemed to have been passed by both Houses in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Under Article 111, the President may return a Bill for reconsideration only if it is not a Money Bill. Therefore, the President cannot return a Money Bill to Parliament for reconsideration.

Additional information for Prelims:

• Article 110 defines a Money Bill.
• The Speaker of the Lok Sabha decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill.
• The Speaker’s decision on this question is final under Article 110(3), subject to constitutional judicial review.
• A joint sitting is not provided for a Money Bill.

Q3. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

The Monetary Policy Committee was established under the amended RBI Act, 1934, through the Finance Act, 2016. It determines the policy interest rate required to achieve the inflation target.

Composition:

The committee consists of six members:

1. RBI Governor – Chairperson.
2. Deputy Governor of RBI in charge of monetary policy.
3. One RBI officer nominated by the Central Board.
4. Three external members appointed by the Central Government.

The RBI Governor has a casting vote in the event of an equality of votes.

Additional information for Prelims:

• The MPC determines the policy repo rate.
• Its primary objective is to maintain price stability while keeping in mind the objective of growth.
• The inflation target is notified by the Central Government in consultation with the RBI.
• The current statutory inflation target is 4%, with a tolerance band of +/- 2 percentage points.

UPSC conceptual connection: Understand the relationship between the repo rate, inflation, aggregate demand, borrowing costs and monetary transmission.

Q4. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent Settlement in 1793.

Statement 2 – Correct: Under this system, zamindars were recognised as proprietors of land, subject to the obligation of paying a fixed amount of land revenue to the East India Company.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The defining characteristic of the Permanent Settlement was that the land revenue demand payable to the colonial government was fixed permanently. It was not periodically revised according to agricultural production.

The system was primarily introduced in Bengal, Bihar and parts of the Company’s territories in eastern India.

Additional information for Prelims:

Feature	Permanent Settlement
Year	1793
Governor-General	Lord Cornwallis
Main intermediaries	Zamindars
Revenue demand	Fixed permanently
Major region	Bengal and Bihar

Comparison with other land revenue systems:

• Permanent Settlement – Zamindari system.
• Ryotwari system – Direct settlement with cultivators.
• Mahalwari system – Settlement with village estates or mahals.

Q5. Correct Answer: (d) – 1, 2 and 3

All three statements are correct.

Western Disturbances are extra-tropical weather systems originating in the Mediterranean region and adjoining parts of western Asia. They travel eastwards towards the Indian subcontinent.

Their movement is associated with the westerly circulation in the subtropical atmosphere.

Importance for India:

1. They bring winter rainfall to northwestern India, particularly Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan and parts of Uttar Pradesh.
2. They contribute to snowfall in the western Himalayas.
3. They are important for the Rabi agricultural season, particularly wheat cultivation.
4. They also influence winter weather conditions in northern India.

Additional information for Prelims:

Western Disturbances are distinct from the southwest monsoon. While the southwest monsoon is associated with summer rainfall, Western Disturbances are particularly important for winter precipitation in northwestern India.

Q6. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: The Ramsar Convention was adopted on 2 February 1971 in Ramsar, Iran. It entered into force in 1975.

Statement 2 – Correct: The convention aims at the conservation and wise use of wetlands through national action and international cooperation.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: Wetlands need not be located within formally declared protected areas to qualify for designation as Ramsar Sites. A wetland may be designated if it satisfies the relevant criteria under the convention.

Additional information for Prelims:

• World Wetlands Day is observed on 2 February.
• The convention is an intergovernmental treaty.
• Ramsar Sites are wetlands of international importance.
• The concept of wise use is central to the convention.

Important distinction: Ramsar designation does not automatically mean that a wetland becomes a national park or wildlife sanctuary under Indian law.

Q7. Correct Answer: (b) – 1 and 3 only

Statement 1 – Correct: mRNA vaccines provide messenger RNA containing instructions that enable the recipient’s cells to produce a specific antigen, which stimulates an immune response.

Statement 2 – Incorrect: The mRNA used in these vaccines does not need to enter or integrate into nuclear DNA. It functions primarily in the cytoplasm and is eventually broken down by cellular processes.

Statement 3 – Correct: The antigen produced through the instructions provided by mRNA helps the immune system recognise the pathogen and develop an immune response.

Additional information for Prelims:

• mRNA stands for messenger ribonucleic acid.
• It carries genetic instructions for protein synthesis.
• mRNA is generally transient and does not alter the recipient’s genetic code.
• mRNA vaccine technology represents an important development in modern biotechnology.

Q8. Correct Answer: (c) – 2 and 3 only

Statement 1 – Incorrect: Not every constitutional amendment requires a special majority under Article 368. Certain constitutional changes can be made by Parliament through a simple majority under the ordinary legislative procedure, as they are not treated as amendments under Article 368.

Examples include certain changes relating to the formation of new States and alteration of State boundaries under Article 3, subject to the applicable constitutional procedure.

Statement 2 – Correct: Certain amendments affecting the federal structure require ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures in addition to the special majority in Parliament.

These include amendments relating to:

• Election of the President.
• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States.
• Representation of States in Parliament.
• The Seventh Schedule.
• Certain provisions relating to the Supreme Court and High Courts.
• Article 368 itself.

Statement 3 – Correct: There is no provision for a joint sitting to resolve a disagreement between the two Houses over a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The Bill must be passed separately by each House with the constitutionally prescribed majority.

Additional information for Prelims:

Article 368 provides for:

1. Special majority of Parliament.
2. Special majority plus ratification by at least half of the States for specified federal provisions.

Q9. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: Under UNCLOS, an Exclusive Economic Zone may extend up to 200 nautical miles from the baselines from which the territorial sea is measured.

Statement 2 – Correct: A coastal State has sovereign rights for exploring, exploiting, conserving and managing natural resources, both living and non-living, within its EEZ.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: An EEZ is not equivalent to territorial waters. The coastal State does not exercise complete sovereignty over the entire water column in its EEZ.

Other States retain certain freedoms, including navigation and overflight, subject to the provisions of UNCLOS.

Additional information for Prelims:

Maritime zone	Extent
Territorial sea	Up to 12 nautical miles
Contiguous zone	Up to 24 nautical miles
Exclusive Economic Zone	Up to 200 nautical miles
Continental shelf	At least 200 nautical miles in its standard entitlement, with possible extension subject to UNCLOS conditions

Important distinction: Sovereignty over territorial waters differs from sovereign rights over resources in the EEZ.

Q10. Correct Answer: (a) – 1 and 2 only

Statement 1 – Correct: The GST Council is a constitutional body established under Article 279A through the 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016.

Statement 2 – Correct: The Union Finance Minister is the Chairperson of the GST Council.

Statement 3 – Incorrect: The Supreme Court in Union of India v. Mohit Minerals Pvt. Ltd. (2022) held that the recommendations of the GST Council have persuasive value and are not binding on Parliament and State Legislatures in the exercise of their legislative powers.

The judgment emphasised the significance of cooperative federalism in India’s GST framework.

Additional information for Prelims:

• The Union Minister of State in charge of Revenue or Finance is a member.
• Each State nominates a minister in charge of finance or taxation, or another minister nominated by the State Government.
• The GST Council makes recommendations on important GST-related matters, including tax rates, exemptions and model laws.

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Section IV: Self-Assessment

After attempting the questions, evaluate your performance.

Score	Performance assessment
17–20	Excellent conceptual understanding
13–16	Good preparation; revise weak areas
9–12	Moderate performance; strengthen fundamentals
Below 9	Revisit the relevant static topics

These are indicative practice benchmarks, not official UPSC cut-offs.

Section V: Topics to Revise

Candidates should revise the following topics based on this practice set:

1. Fundamental Duties – Article 51A and the 42nd and 86th Amendments.
2. Money Bills – Articles 109, 110 and 111.
3. Monetary Policy Committee – Composition and functions.
4. Land Revenue Systems – Permanent Settlement, Ryotwari and Mahalwari.
5. Indian Climate – Western Disturbances and winter rainfall.
6. Wetlands – Ramsar Convention and Ramsar Sites.
7. Biotechnology – mRNA vaccine technology.
8. Constitutional Amendment – Article 368.
9. UNCLOS – Territorial Sea, Contiguous Zone and EEZ.
10. GST Council – Article 279A and cooperative federalism.

Conclusion

Regular practice is essential for developing the analytical ability required for the UPSC Civil Services Preliminary Examination. Candidates should not limit their preparation to identifying the correct option. They must also understand why an option is correct, why other options are incorrect and how the underlying concept connects with the wider syllabus.

Samata Prelims Daily will provide original, examination-oriented practice questions to help aspirants develop these skills systematically.

Prepare consistently. Analyse carefully. Improve every day.

Samata IAS Academy – Comprehensive Preparation for Civil Services Examination.

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Disclaimer: This is an original practice set prepared by Samata IAS Academy for educational purposes. It is not an official UPSC question paper.