General Studies Paper-I — Set A

Question 1

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Correct Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation

Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th Melakarta raga in Carnatic music. Its scale corresponds to the natural major scale and is comparable to Bilawal Thaat in Hindustani classical music.

Bilawal is based on all seven natural notes, corresponding broadly to the swaras of Shankarabharanam.

Concept: Indian Classical Music — Carnatic and Hindustani systems.

Question 2

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons ?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Correct Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

Explanation

The Hilton-Young Commission examined India’s currency and monetary arrangements during the colonial period.

The exchange-rate arrangement was favourable to the British colonial government’s financial interests because it facilitated the transfer of funds from India to Britain, including payments associated with Home Charges and other sterling obligations.

A relatively strong rupee-sterling relationship therefore helped the colonial government meet its sterling commitments and maintain India’s financial standing in London.

Concept: Colonial economy — currency, exchange rate and Home Charges.

Question 3

Consider the following statements:

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, kamsa, and kakanika.

II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

Emergence of urban life
Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

The emergence of coinage is closely associated with the economic transformation accompanying the Second Urbanisation in the middle Ganga valley and adjoining regions.

The increasing use of coins facilitated:

commercial exchange,
long-distance trade,
market transactions, and
monetisation of the economy.

The archaeological discovery of punch-marked coins, many of them silver, corroborates literary references to early forms of currency.

Thus, the evidence is associated with both the emergence of urban life and the transition towards a money economy.

Concept: Ancient Indian economy — coinage and urbanisation.

Question 4

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation

The Nagara style is traditionally associated with North Indian temple architecture and is characterised by a curvilinear shikhara.

The Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole represents an early experiment in temple architecture with Nagara features.

The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh, generally dated to the Gupta period, is a significant early example of Nagara architectural development.

The Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal is primarily associated with the Dravida tradition, while the Malegitti Shivalaya is not classified in the required combination.

Therefore, 2 and 3 are correct.

Concept: Indian architecture — Nagara and Dravida traditions.

Question 5

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)
(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c) Manushya (humans)
(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Correct Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Explanation

Jainism recognises four principal gatis, or destinations/forms of existence:

Deva — celestial beings
Manushya — human beings
Tiryancha — animals, plants and other non-human beings
Naraka — infernal beings

Yakshas are associated with Jain religious traditions as attendant or guardian deities, but they do not constitute one of the four principal gatis.

Concept: Jainism — gatis and cosmology.

Question 6

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Correct Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

Explanation

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves depicts a lively group dance accompanied by musicians.

The Bagh Caves in present-day Madhya Pradesh contain important examples of ancient Indian mural painting, generally associated with the Buddhist tradition.

The painting provides evidence of the artistic representation of music, dance and social life.

Concept: Indian art — Bagh Caves and mural painting.

Question 7

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India :

The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The place-value system was a major contribution of ancient Indian mathematics.

The Mankani plates provide early epigraphic evidence of its use. By the ninth century, place-value notation had become increasingly established in Indian inscriptions.

The transmission of Indian mathematical knowledge also extended beyond the subcontinent, with evidence of the system in Sanskrit inscriptions in Southeast Asia.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

Concept: Ancient Indian mathematics and transmission of knowledge.

Question 8

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation

The widespread occurrence of spindle-whorls, along with the absence of spinning wheels, indicates that spinning was undertaken using spindle technology and was likely a labour-intensive domestic activity.

Standardised weights and graduated measuring instruments demonstrate a considerable degree of technological and scientific knowledge.

The description of houses with courtyards, wells and bathing platforms does not establish the emergence of a common property system. Rather, it provides evidence regarding Harappan domestic architecture and urban organisation.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Concept: Harappan civilisation — technology, economy and urban society.

Question 9

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.

(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.

(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was a protest against excessive extraction of rents.

(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation

The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, led by Vallabhbhai Patel, was directed against an increase in land revenue imposed by the colonial government.

The Eka Movement in Awadh during 1921–22 was associated with peasant grievances against excessive rents and other forms of exploitation by landlords and intermediaries.

The two movements therefore differed in their immediate economic grievances.

Concept: National Movement — peasant movements.

Question 10

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/kulisha (axe) and datra/sreni (sickle).
There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Statement 1 directly supports the use of wells and mechanisms for drawing water, including the ashma chakra and ahava.

Statement 3 supports the use of animal power, particularly oxen, for agricultural and transport purposes.

Statement 2 establishes the existence of agricultural implements but does not directly support the two propositions concerning irrigation and draught-animal power for drawing water.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only are relevant.

Concept: Rigvedic economy — agriculture, irrigation and technology.

Question 11

Consider the following assertion:

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3

Correct Answer: (d) 3

Explanation

The presence of closely related or the same species of river dolphins in the Indus and Ganga river systems provides biological evidence relevant to the hypothesis of an earlier connection between the two drainage systems.

The other two pieces of information do not constitute the specific basis of the assertion in the question.

This is an example of how biogeographical evidence can help reconstruct ancient drainage patterns.

Concept: Geomorphology — palaeodrainage and river evolution.

Question 12

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha
(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Correct Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation

Early Buddhist art frequently used aniconic symbols instead of representing the Buddha in human form.

An empty seat, particularly in association with the Bodhi tree, represents the Buddha’s presence and his meditation/enlightenment at Bodh Gaya.

Other important symbolic representations include:

Dharmachakra — First Sermon
Stupa — Mahaparinibbana
Horse without a rider — Mahabhinishkramana

Concept: Buddhist iconography and aniconism.

Question 13

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

Vitasta : Chenab
Asikni : Jhelum
Parushni : Ravi
Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only

Correct Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation

The correct ancient–modern river correspondence is:

Vitasta → Jhelum
Asikni → Chenab
Parushni → Ravi
Yavyavati does not correspond to the Beas.

Therefore, only Parushni : Ravi is correctly matched.

The Parushni is also significant in the Rigveda in connection with the Battle of the Ten Kings.

Concept: Ancient Indian geography and Vedic literature.

Question 14

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

The Amaravati Stupa was situated in the lower Krishna valley in present-day Andhra Pradesh.

The Amaravati school of sculpture became an important artistic tradition and influenced later South Indian sculpture. Its artistic products also travelled to Sri Lanka and Southeast Asia, reflecting the wider cultural networks associated with Buddhism and maritime trade.

Statement 2 is incorrect.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only are correct.

Concept: Buddhist architecture and sculpture — Amaravati school.

Question 15

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

Senguttuvan : Chera
Udiyanjeral : Chola
Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation

Senguttuvan was a ruler of the Chera dynasty.

Nedunjeliyan was associated with the Pandya dynasty.

Udiyanjeral, however, was also associated with the Chera dynasty and not the Chola dynasty.

Therefore, pair 2 is not correctly matched.

Concept: Sangam Age — Chera, Chola and Pandya dynasties.

Question 16

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation

The political circumstances surrounding Subhas Chandra Bose’s resignation from the Congress presidency in 1939 contributed directly to the formation of the Forward Bloc.

Bose faced strong opposition from the Gandhian leadership. At the same time, the Congress Left was not sufficiently united behind him.

Different socialist and left-oriented groups also prioritised Congress unity over supporting Bose’s political line.

Thus, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Concept: Freedom Movement — Congress politics and Subhas Chandra Bose.

Question 17

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

Explanation

After the annexation of Awadh in 1856, the British administration attempted to restructure the land-revenue system.

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates and their traditional authority was weakened. The British attempted to establish a more direct relationship with cultivators for revenue collection.

The Summary Settlement of 1856 reflected the British view that taluqdars were intermediaries whose claims could be displaced.

However, the statement that the taluqdars were allowed to retain their arms and forts is incorrect.

Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Concept: British land policy in Awadh and background to the Revolt of 1857.

Question 18

Consider the following assertion :

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation

The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919, implemented through the Government of India Act, 1919, retained and extended the system of separate electorates.

Separate representation strengthened political mobilisation along communal and group lines. The colonial constitutional structure consequently encouraged different communities and disadvantaged groups to organise around claims for political representation.

Therefore, all three statements support the assertion.

Concept: Constitutional developments under British rule — communal representation.

Question 19

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Correct Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was a celebrated exponent of Hindustani classical vocal music and was strongly associated with the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana.

The Jaipur-Atrauli tradition is noted for its sophisticated treatment of complex and compound ragas.

Concept: Hindustani classical music — gharanas and artists.

Question 20

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Arthashastra

Correct Answer: (b) Atharvaveda

Explanation

The term kshetra-patni, meaning the “mistress of the field”, occurs in the Atharvaveda in an agricultural context.

The terminology reflects the importance of cultivated land, fertility and agriculture in early Indian society and ritual thought.

Concept: Vedic literature — agriculture and early Indian society.

Question 21

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement I establishes India’s long-term pathway towards net-zero emissions by 2070.

Statement II provides empirical evidence of India’s emissions trajectory and therefore supports the broader long-term low-emission approach.

Statement III, however, introduces an emphasis on quick and short-term emission reduction, which does not accurately represent the long-term development approach implicit in LT-LEDS.

Therefore, Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Climate policy — LT-LEDS, net-zero target and climate-resilient development.

Question 22

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Western Hoolock Gibbon is an endangered ape found in northeastern India and neighbouring regions.

It is highly adapted to an arboreal lifestyle. Its long arms and specialised locomotion enable brachiation, allowing it to swing efficiently between branches.

Statement 3 is incorrect because hoolock gibbons are slender and agile, rather than having the strong and heavy build characteristic of gorillas.

Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Biodiversity — primates, IUCN status and arboreal adaptations.

Question 23

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation

Mangroves are highly important coastal ecosystems because their dense root systems and vegetation can reduce the impact of:

storm surges,
waves,
coastal erosion, and
cyclonic events.

They also provide important livelihood resources to coastal communities through fisheries and other biomass-based activities.

Statement 1 incorrectly characterises mangroves as sites ideal for paddy cultivation.

Statement 2 incorrectly describes their salt-management functions as converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.

Therefore, Statement 3 only is correct.

Concept: Environment — mangrove ecosystems, blue carbon and climate resilience.

Question 24

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation

The significance of Vizhinjam International Seaport lies primarily in its deep natural draft and strategic location near major international shipping routes.

India has historically depended significantly on foreign trans-shipment hubs. Vizhinjam provides an opportunity to increase India’s own capacity for trans-shipment, retain more maritime revenue domestically and strengthen India’s position in regional maritime trade.

Statements 1 and 2 incorrectly describe its principal strategic role.

Concept: Indian geography — ports, trans-shipment and maritime logistics.

Question 25

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

It has an antecedent drainage system.
It flows through three countries.
It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Teesta

Correct Answer: (c) Sutlej

Explanation

The Sutlej originates in the Tibetan Plateau and enters India through Himachal Pradesh before joining the Indus river system in Pakistan.

It is an important river for irrigation and hydroelectricity.

Its course is regarded as an example of antecedent drainage, where a river maintains its course while tectonic uplift occurs.

The Sutlej ultimately flows through China, India and Pakistan.

Concept: Indian geography — Himalayan rivers, antecedent drainage and irrigation.

Question 26

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation

Statement 1 is correct. Uttar Pradesh shares boundaries with eight other Indian States and one Union Territory.

Statement 2 is incorrect because West Bengal has the longest international boundary among Indian States when the relevant international borders are considered in the manner tested by the question.

Statement 3 is also incorrect. Sikkim shares its boundary with more than one Indian State — West Bengal is its principal Indian neighbour, but the statement’s formulation is not correct in the context of the geographical configuration being tested.

Thus, 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Concept: Indian geography — inter-State boundaries and international borders.

Question 27

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation

The annual arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake is an important example of successful community-based conservation.

The birds undertake a remarkable long-distance migration, and local conservation efforts in Nagaland have helped transform the region from an area associated with hunting into an important safe stopover site.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the annual migration is not evidence that tracking technology guides the birds back to their stopover site.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the Amur Falcon remains a migratory species, not a permanent resident of India.

Concept: Environment — migratory birds and community conservation.

Question 28

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation

The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) component seeks to improve the productivity and resilience of rainfed agriculture.

A major approach is the promotion of Integrated Farming Systems, which combine activities such as crops, livestock, horticulture and other suitable components.

This helps:

diversify farm income,
improve resource use,
enhance productivity, and
reduce climatic risks.

RAD does not seek to promote monoculture or simply increase rice cultivation in irrigated regions.

Concept: Agriculture — rainfed farming, integrated farming systems and climate resilience.

Question 29

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation

OEKO-TEX certification provides assurance regarding compliance with specified standards concerning harmful substances and textile safety.

For Eri Silk, such certification can strengthen its acceptability in international markets where consumers and buyers place greater emphasis on:

chemical safety,
environmental standards,
product quality, and
sustainable textiles.

Therefore, both statements correctly capture the significance of certification.

Concept: Agriculture and industry — sericulture, textiles and export standards.

Question 30

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

Bahrain
Syria
Qatar
Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation

The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and provides access to the Arabian Sea and wider Indian Ocean.

Bahrain and Qatar are Persian Gulf countries whose maritime traffic to the open Indian Ocean passes through the Strait of Hormuz.

Syria and Egypt do not require passage through Hormuz to access the Indian Ocean:

Syria lies on the eastern Mediterranean.
Egypt can access the Red Sea and Indian Ocean through the Suez Canal–Red Sea route.

Therefore, 1 and 3 are correct.

Concept: World geography — strategic straits and maritime chokepoints.

Question 31

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador
(b) Peru
(c) Bolivia
(d) Colombia

Correct Answer: (a) Ecuador

Explanation

Tungurahua is an active volcano in Ecuador, in the central Andes.

The question links physical geography with the contemporary institutional framework of UNESCO Global Geoparks, making it both a geography and current-affairs question.

Concept: World geography — Andes, volcanoes and UNESCO Global Geoparks.

Question 32

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

Madhav National Park is located in Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh.

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2025, adding it to India’s network of tiger reserves.

The park contains Sakhya Sagar, a wetland that has been designated as a Ramsar Site.

The park is not shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Environment — protected areas, tiger reserves and Ramsar Sites.

Question 33

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have a warm, humid tropical maritime climate.

They receive rainfall mainly from the South-West Monsoon, but the islands also receive rainfall from the North-East Monsoon, particularly the Nicobar group.

Statement 3 is incorrect because the period of maximum rainfall is not December–May.

Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Indian geography — island climate and monsoon.

Question 34

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

The Peninsular Block is one of India’s oldest and most stable geological regions, though it has experienced tectonic movements and differential uplift.

The western margin has experienced tectonic and coastal changes, including areas of submergence.

It also contains old and highly denuded/residual hill systems such as the Velikonda Hills and Mahendragiri Hills.

The deep, youthful V-shaped valleys associated with rapidly flowing rivers are not the characteristic feature intended here.

Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Physical geography — Peninsular India, geology and geomorphology.

Question 35

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India:

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation

Statement I describes the central objective of Sagarmala — promoting port-led development through improved maritime and coastal infrastructure.

Statement II provides evidence of outcomes that support the effectiveness of this strategy.

Statement III extends the programme into a more contemporary framework involving maritime innovation, while remaining consistent with India’s broader economic and strategic objectives.

Statement 3 is incorrect because Statement I does not contradict Statement III.

Therefore, 1 and 2 are correct.

Concept: Infrastructure — ports, logistics and maritime development.

Question 36

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid) :

It is an epiphytic orchid.
The species is endemic to North-east India.
It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation

Rhynchostylis retusa, commonly known as the Foxtail Orchid, is an epiphytic orchid.

It is not endemic exclusively to Northeast India; it has a wider distribution in South and Southeast Asia.

It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Therefore, 1 and 3 are correct.

Concept: Environment — orchids, biodiversity and State symbols.

Question 37

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

They acted as army fortresses.
They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

Correct Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation

The Moidams of the Ahom dynasty are monumental burial mounds associated with the royal and aristocratic members of the Tai-Ahom community.

They form an important cultural landscape in Assam and were inscribed on the UNESCO World Heritage List.

They were not military fortresses, recreation centres or battle-drill centres.

Thus, Statement 3 only is correct.

Concept: Art & Culture — Ahom heritage and UNESCO World Heritage Sites.

Question 38

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct ?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Correct Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Explanation

The FAO’s framework of Four Betters consists of:

Better Production
Better Nutrition
A Better Environment
A Better Life

The framework connects food systems with environmental sustainability, livelihoods and human well-being.

Therefore, (b) is correct.

Concept: International organisations — FAO, sustainable food systems and Blue Transformation.

Question 39

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

It is the largest desert lake in the world.
The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation

Lake Turkana is located primarily in northern Kenya, with a small portion extending towards Ethiopia.

It is the world’s largest desert lake and is popularly known as the “Jade Sea” because of the characteristic greenish colour of its waters.

The Lake Turkana National Parks are associated with UNESCO World Heritage recognition.

Statement 2 is incorrect because the lake is not located in South Sudan or along the eastern fringe of the Sahara.

Therefore, 1 and 3 are correct.

Concept: World geography — African lakes and UNESCO heritage.

Question 40

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Correct Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Explanation

The Khasi Hills Community REDD+ Project in Meghalaya is recognised as India’s first Plan Vivo-certified REDD+ project.

The project is based on community participation in forest conservation and sustainable land management.

Its significance lies in linking:

forest conservation,
carbon sequestration,
community livelihoods, and
climate mitigation.

The project illustrates how local communities can participate in carbon-oriented conservation initiatives.

Concept: Environment — REDD+, carbon sequestration and community forest management.

Question 41

Which one of the following is the best example of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities’ principle?

(A) Developed countries providing financial and technological support to developing countries for climate action

(B) All countries having identical emission reduction targets

(C) Developing countries being exempted from all climate obligations

(D) Developed countries having no responsibility for historical emissions

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

The principle of Common but Differentiated Responsibilities and Respective Capabilities (CBDR-RC) recognises that all countries share responsibility for addressing global environmental problems, but their responsibilities are differentiated according to their historical contributions to environmental degradation and their respective capabilities.

Developed countries have historically contributed a much larger share of cumulative greenhouse-gas emissions and possess greater financial and technological capabilities. Therefore, international climate frameworks expect them to undertake greater responsibilities, including financial and technological support.

Question 42

Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?

(A) It is an initiative of the World Bank.

(B) It was launched jointly by India and France.

(C) It is restricted only to countries located between the Tropics.

(D) It deals exclusively with nuclear energy.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

The International Solar Alliance (ISA) was launched jointly by India and France in 2015 during the COP21 climate conference in Paris.

Its objective is to promote cooperation among solar-rich countries and facilitate the deployment of solar energy through financing, technology, capacity building and other forms of cooperation.

The ISA was initially conceived primarily around countries receiving significant solar radiation, but its membership has subsequently expanded considerably.

Question 43

Which of the following statements with regard to climate change are correct?

(A) Climate change can affect the frequency and intensity of extreme weather events.

(B) Changes in climate have no effect on agricultural productivity.

(C) Sea-level rise is one of the consequences associated with global warming.

(D) Both (A) and (C)

Correct Answer: C

Explanation:

Climate change can influence the frequency, intensity and spatial distribution of extreme weather events. It can also affect agricultural productivity through changes in temperature, rainfall patterns, droughts, floods and pest behaviour.

Sea-level rise is a major consequence of global warming because of both thermal expansion of seawater and the melting of glaciers and ice sheets.

Question 44

Which one of the following best describes ‘blue carbon’?

(A) Carbon stored in the atmosphere over oceans

(B) Carbon captured and stored by coastal and marine ecosystems

(C) Carbon stored exclusively in deep ocean sediments

(D) Carbon released by marine organisms

Correct Answer: B

Explanation:

Blue carbon refers to carbon that is captured, stored and sequestered by coastal and marine ecosystems, particularly mangroves, tidal marshes and seagrass meadows.

These ecosystems can store substantial quantities of carbon in their biomass and especially in their sediments. Conservation and restoration of blue-carbon ecosystems therefore contribute to climate-change mitigation while also providing biodiversity and coastal-protection benefits.

Question 45

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Hydrogen produced from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage is generally termed blue hydrogen, not green hydrogen.

Statement 2 is correct. Green hydrogen is produced through electrolysis of water using renewable electricity. The process separates water into hydrogen and oxygen without directly generating carbon emissions from fossil-fuel-based electricity.

Statement 3 is correct. India’s National Green Hydrogen Mission targets large-scale production and use of green hydrogen and envisages significant greenhouse-gas emissions abatement by 2030.

Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question 46

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme :

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. IN-SPACe was established as an autonomous agency under the Department of Space to promote, enable and regulate the participation of private entities in India’s space sector.

Statement 2 is correct. Agnikul Cosmos successfully demonstrated a rocket using its 3D-printed semi-cryogenic engine, marking an important development in India’s private space sector.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Skyroot Aerospace has developed its own rocket technologies and propulsion systems, but it has not developed the liquid fuel for India’s GSLV.

Therefore, the correct answer is 1 and 2 only.

Question 47

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Drone swarms can use a variety of communication technologies and frequency bands; the Terahertz band is not a defining or universally used communication band for drone swarms.

Statement 2 is correct. A defining characteristic of a swarm is the ability of individual drones to communicate and coordinate with one another, enabling collective behaviour.

Statement 3 is correct. GPS spoofing can be employed as a counter-drone technique by manipulating navigation signals and disrupting the coordinated operation of drones.

Hence, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question 48

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. GenomeIndia is an Indian national genomics initiative and is not a part of the international Human Genome Project.

Statement 2 is correct. The project is supported by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.

Statement 3 is correct. A major objective is to create a comprehensive reference database representing the genetic diversity of India’s population.

The project has important implications for precision medicine, disease research, pharmacogenomics and understanding population-specific genetic variations.

Question 49

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50 – 1000 physical qubits.
Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The National Quantum Mission seeks to develop India’s capabilities in quantum technologies.

Its objectives include the development of intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50–1000 physical qubits and the establishment of four thematic hubs focusing on major quantum-technology domains.

The mission covers areas such as quantum computing, quantum communication, quantum sensing and metrology, and quantum materials and devices.

Question 50

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Deep Ocean Mission is under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, not the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways.

Statement 2 is correct. Matsya-6000 is a deep-sea human-occupied submersible designed to carry three people.

Statement 3 is correct. Samudrayaan is the human deep-sea exploration project associated with the Deep Ocean Mission.

Thus, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question 51

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Equity
(c) Accountability
(d) Delegation

Correct Answer: (c) Accountability

Explanation:

The most appropriate principle is accountability.

Mr. X did not ignore malpractice despite pressure from vested interests. He took responsibility for protecting the public interest, reported the matter to the appropriate authority and stopped a contract that could compromise citizen welfare.

Accountability requires public officials to be answerable for their decisions and actions and to act in accordance with public interest, law and institutional standards.

Question 52

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above :

A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform – including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives – to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2,3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation:

A sustainable conflict-resolution process should be inclusive, evidence-based and sensitive to legitimate interests.

Statement 1 is correct. Recognising the cultural concerns of the tribal community is essential for establishing trust and beginning meaningful dialogue.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The government cannot simply dismiss the concerns of a minority community as insignificant. Doing so could deepen the conflict.

Statement 3 is correct. A multi-stakeholder platform can bring different perspectives together and facilitate dialogue.

Statement 4 is correct. An independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment can provide objective evidence for decision-making and increase transparency.

Therefore, 1, 3 and 4 only contribute to the resolution process.

Question 53

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project – a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
Propose a limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1,2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 3 only

Explanation:

The key issue is balancing transparency, procedural fairness and confidentiality.

The information concerns allegations that have not been legally established. Therefore, immediately making the allegations public could unfairly damage the contractor’s reputation.

At the same time, the information should not simply be suppressed. A limited disclosure to an appropriate oversight committee allows the concern to be independently examined while maintaining confidentiality until facts are established.

Hence, statement 3 only is the most appropriate course of action.

Question 54

‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. X explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

(a) X is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b) The view of Y that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
(c) The views of both X and Y are correct.
(d) The view of only Y is correct.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Article 13(3)(a) gives a broad definition of “law” for the purposes of fundamental rights.

It expressly includes ordinances, orders, bye-laws, rules, regulations, notifications, customs or usages having the force of law in the territory of India.

Therefore, X is correct regarding the comprehensive nature of the term, but incorrect in excluding custom. Y alone is correct on the disputed point.

Question 55

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India :

There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.
(b) There is no correct statement.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 3.
(d) There is only one correct statement.

Correct Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Explanation:

All three statements are incorrect.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 393 gives the short title: “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.”
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 395 expressly repeals the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Article 394 specifies that certain provisions came into force immediately, while the remaining provisions came into force on 26 January 1950.

Therefore, there is no correct statement among the three.

Question 56

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct ?

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains – built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 was enacted by Parliament in 2016, not 2018. Therefore, the statement as worded is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) focuses on accessibility in three broad areas: built environment, transportation and information and communication technology.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The NDFDC is associated with the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities, Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Hence, statement 2 only is correct.

Question 57

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India :

Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) All three statements are correct.

Correct Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are dealt with under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule.

Statement 2 is correct. Certain tribal communities are entitled to income-tax exemptions under specified legal provisions for certain categories of income.

Statement 3 is correct. The Constitution provides reservation for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Panchayats, and constitutional provisions also provide for reservation for women, including women belonging to SC and ST categories.

Therefore, two statements are correct and statement 2 is one of them.

Question 58

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:

Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Correct Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. An unstarred question requires a written answer.

Statement 2 is incorrect. A starred question is one for which the member seeks an oral answer.

Statement 3 is correct. Since an unstarred question receives a written answer, supplementary questions cannot ordinarily be asked in the House on it.

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.

Question 59

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

(a) There are four correct statements.
(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Correct Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

Explanation:

All four statements are incorrect.

The Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes consists of 30 members — 20 from the Lok Sabha and 10 from the Rajya Sabha. Thus, statement 2 reverses the actual distribution.

The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

The committee’s membership and tenure also do not correspond to the formulations given in statements 3 and 4.

Hence, none of the four statements is correct.

Question 60

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India :

It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

All three statements correctly describe the objectives associated with Mission Sudarshan Chakra.

The mission envisages strengthening India’s air and missile defence architecture, improving the country’s ability to respond rapidly and precisely to threats, and developing a broader nationwide security shield.

The question therefore tests not merely knowledge of a weapons system but the broader idea of integrated national air and missile defence and strategic autonomy.

Hence, 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 61

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. Maitri Setu is constructed over the Feni River and connects Sabroom in Tripura with Ramgarh in Bangladesh. The statement reverses the locations.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Jhulaghat is associated with the India–Nepal border, not Myanmar.

Statement 3 is correct. The Mechi Bridge connects India’s Panitanki area with Kakarvitta in Nepal, providing an important road connection between the two countries.

Therefore, statement 3 only is correct.

Question 62

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (d) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Zero FIR mechanism applies to information concerning a cognizable offence irrespective of territorial jurisdiction. The inclusion of non-cognizable offences makes the statement incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct. The BNSS provides for preliminary inquiry in specified circumstances, subject to the prescribed conditions and permission of the competent authority.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Information does not have to be furnished electronically. The law permits information to be given through prescribed modes, including electronic communication, but electronic submission is not mandatory.

Thus, statement 2 only is correct.

Question 63

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Correct Answer: (a) 1

Explanation:

The question requires checking the complete row, including the controlling ministry.

Row 1 is incorrect. CEIB coordinates economic intelligence among enforcement agencies, but it functions under the Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Row 2 is incorrect. SFIO investigates complex corporate frauds, but it functions under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs, not the Ministry of Finance.
Row 3 is correct. The CBI functions under the administrative control of the Department of Personnel and Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pensions, and the description of its role corresponds to its stated mandate.

Hence, only one row is correctly matched.

Question 64

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

Employment Policy Convention
Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3,4 and 5

Correct Answer: Scrapped

Explanation:

This question is not to be assigned an option in the final answer key. The current answer-key record marks Question 64 as Scrapped.

For UPSC preparation, the important lesson is that when a question has been officially invalidated/scrapped, candidates should not treat any of its printed options as a valid final answer.

Question 65

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi :

The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation:

The question tests the specific framework and terminology associated with the AI Impact Summit 2026.

Statement 3 is correct. The New Delhi Declaration was structured around seven broad pillars or Chakras, including areas such as Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Statements 1 and 2 do not correctly reproduce the official conceptual framework as presented in the question.

Therefore, statement 3 only is correct.

Question 66

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
IMT Trilateral Highway
Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project is an important India–Myanmar connectivity initiative and forms part of India’s wider connectivity engagement with ASEAN.

Statement 2 is correct. The India–Myanmar–Thailand Trilateral Highway is a major India–ASEAN connectivity project.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The Agartala–Akhaura rail link connects India and Bangladesh and is not an India–ASEAN connectivity project.

Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Question 67

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I — Project Supported by India

A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project
B. Restoration of Stor Palace
C. District Hospital at Dickoya
D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

List II — Country

Maldives
Afghanistan
Bhutan
Sri Lanka

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	1	4	2	3
(b)	3	2	4	1
(c)	3	4	2	1
(d)	1	2	4	3

Correct Answer: (b) 3 2 4 1

Explanation:

The correct matching is:

Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project — Bhutan (3)
Restoration of Stor Palace — Afghanistan (2)
District Hospital at Dickoya — Sri Lanka (4)
Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies — Maldives (1)

Thus, the correct sequence is 3–2–4–1, corresponding to option (b).

This question tests India’s development partnership and capacity-building assistance in neighbouring and partner countries.

Question 68

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
T-90 MK-III Tanks
Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation:

Su-30 MKI fighter aircraft are manufactured in India by Hindustan Aeronautics Limited (HAL) under arrangements involving technology transfer and licensed production.

T-90 tanks have also been manufactured in India under licensed production arrangements.

The Akula-class submarine, however, is of Russian origin and has been associated with leasing arrangements rather than indigenous manufacture in India.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Question 69

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect. The Colombo Process is a regional consultative process concerning labour migration. It does not take binding decisions by consensus.

Statement 2 is correct. The Abu Dhabi Dialogue is a voluntary and non-binding consultative process involving countries of labour origin and destination.

Statement 3 is correct. The Global Forum on Migration and Development (GFMD) is a voluntary, non-binding platform for dialogue and cooperation on migration and development.

Hence, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question 70

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

World Food Programme
United Nations Children’s Fund
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Correct Answer: (a) 1

Explanation:

Among the organisations listed, the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has received the Nobel Peace Prize twice, in 1954 and 1981.

The other organisations listed have received the Nobel Prize only once:

WFP — 2020
UNICEF — 1965
ILO — 1969

Therefore, only one of the listed organisations has received the Nobel Prize twice.

Question 71

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I — UN Peacekeeping Operation

A. UNMIL
B. MINURCAT
C. MINUSTAH
D. UNMISET

List II — Period of Operation

2007–2010
2002–2005
2003–2018
2004–2017

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	4	1	2
(b)	3	1	4	2
(c)	2	1	4	3
(d)	2	4	1	3

Correct Answer: (b) 3 1 4 2

Explanation:

The correct matching is:

UNMIL — Liberia — 2003–2018 (3)
MINURCAT — Central African Republic/Chad — 2007–2010 (1)
MINUSTAH — Haiti — 2004–2017 (4)
UNMISET — East Timor/Timor-Leste — 2002–2005 (2)

Therefore, the correct sequence is 3–1–4–2, or option (b).

Question 72

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I — BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment

A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory
B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre
C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate
D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility

List II — Location

NOIDA
Bengaluru
Colombo
Thimphu

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	2	1	4
(b)	3	1	2	4
(c)	4	2	1	3
(d)	4	1	2	3

Correct Answer: (c) 4 2 1 3

Explanation:

The correct matching is:

BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory — Thimphu (4)
BIMSTEC Energy Centre — Bengaluru (2)
BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate — NOIDA (1)
BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility — Colombo (3)

Therefore, the correct sequence is 4–2–1–3, corresponding to option (c).

Question 73

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(Indian Army Corps) — (Headquarters)

(a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps : Leh
(d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Correct Answer: (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Explanation:

The first three pairs are correctly associated:

III Corps — Dimapur
IV Corps — Tezpur
XIV Corps — Leh

The XXXIII Corps is headquartered at Sukna near Siliguri in West Bengal, rather than Srinagar.

Therefore, option (d) is the incorrectly matched pair.

Question 74

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 2 is correct. The Revamped RGSA focuses on strengthening the governance capabilities of Panchayati Raj Institutions and enabling them to contribute to the achievement of the Sustainable Development Goals.

Statement 1 is incorrect. The implementation period given in the statement does not correctly correspond to the approved period of the revamped scheme.

Statement 3 is incorrect. Central funding is not 100% for all States and Union Territories. The funding pattern varies according to the category of State/UT and applicable scheme norms.

Hence, statement 2 only is correct.

Question 75

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

Belarus
Poland
Germany
Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation:

Poland and Germany are members of the European Union.

Belarus is not an EU member, while Switzerland, although closely associated with the EU economically and geographically, is also not an EU member.

Therefore, 2 and 3 only are correct.

Question 76

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I — INTERPOL Notice

A. Silver Notice
B. Blue Notice
C. Black Notice
D. Green Notice

List II — Description

To seek information on unidentified bodies
To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
To identify and trace criminal assets

Code:

	A	B	C	D
(a)	3	1	2	4
(b)	3	2	1	4
(c)	4	2	1	3
(d)	4	1	2	3

Correct Answer: (c) 4 2 1 3

Explanation:

The correct matching is:

Silver Notice — identify and trace criminal assets (4)
Blue Notice — collect additional information about a person in a criminal investigation (2)
Black Notice — seek information about unidentified bodies (1)
Green Notice — warn about a person’s criminal activities and potential threat to public safety (3)

Therefore, the sequence is 4–2–1–3, corresponding to option (c).

Question 77

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under NIRANTAR with the Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata as the lead institution.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The statement incorrectly identifies the Central Zoo Authority as the lead institution for Research and Management of Ecosystem Services.

Statement 3 is correct. Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal is associated with the Capacity Development Support vertical.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only are correct.

Question 78

In January, 2026 the Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India. Which of the following is/are not correct with regard to the outcomes of this visit?

Memorandum of Understanding signed between All India Institute of Ayurveda and Hamburg University
Memorandum of Understanding between Hockey India and German Hockey Federation on development of youth hockey
Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on Indo-Pacific region
Inauguration of the Honorary Consulate of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) Only 1

Correct Answer: (b) 1 and 4

Explanation:

The question asks for the statements that were not correct as outcomes of the visit.

The answer-key position is that statements 1 and 4 are not correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is option (b).

The question is an example of a current-affairs question where UPSC expects candidates to distinguish between actual bilateral outcomes and plausible-sounding but incorrect additions.

Question 79

DHRUV64

1. It is the third chip built under the DIR-V programme, whose overall objective is to enable India to build microprocessors.
2. It is India’s first indigenous 1-0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below :

(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) 1 and 2 both
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 both

Explanation:

DHRUV64 is associated with India’s indigenous semiconductor and processor-development efforts under the DIR-V (Digital India RISC-V) programme.

Both statements correctly describe the significance attributed to DHRUV64 in India’s indigenous processor-development ecosystem.

The question is important from the perspective of RISC-V architecture, indigenous semiconductor capability and technological self-reliance.

Hence, both statements are correct.

Question 80

Recently, the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) has introduced a national standard for testing and evaluation of bomb disposal systems. With regard to this system, consider the following statements:

The new standard is known as IS 19445 : 2025.
It will improve interoperability of equipment among different agencies.
It was developed by DRDO’s TBRL in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Only 1

Correct Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The new BIS standard for bomb-disposal systems is IS 19445:2025.

Statement 2 is correct. Standardisation helps ensure greater interoperability and compatibility of equipment used by different agencies.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The development details given in the statement do not correctly describe the institutional collaboration behind the standard.

Therefore, 1 and 2 only are correct.

Question 81

‘X’, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify X:

(a) Michel H. Devoret
(b) Richard Robson
(c) John Clarke
(d) Joel Mokyr

Correct Answer: (c) John Clarke

Explanation:

The question refers to John Clarke, one of the recipients of the 2025 Nobel Prize in Physics.

Clarke was born in the United Kingdom and was associated with the University of California, Berkeley, in the United States. His work is associated with experimental research on quantum mechanical effects in electrical circuits and superconducting systems.

The question illustrates UPSC’s tendency to connect a recent international award with biographical and scientific details.

Question 82

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Correct Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation:

The four Grand Slam tournaments are:

Australian Open
French Open
Wimbledon
US Open

Statement 1 is correct. The four Grand Slam tournaments cooperate through a common governance and commercial framework.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Participation is not simply open to all internationally ranked players above a specified age. Entry depends upon ranking, qualification, protected rankings, wild cards and tournament-specific entry regulations.

Statement 3 is incorrect as framed. The regulations concerning wild cards do not establish the broad universal limitation described in the statement.

Therefore, statement 1 only is correct.

Question 83

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat

(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh

(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The HCL-Foxconn semiconductor joint venture is associated with a semiconductor facility in Uttar Pradesh, not Madhya Pradesh.

The other locations correspond to semiconductor projects identified in the question.

Thus, the incorrectly matched pair is:

HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. — Madhya Pradesh

Hence, option (c).

Question 84

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation:

The Bharat Forecast System (BFS) is India’s indigenous high-resolution numerical weather prediction system.

Statement 1 is correct. One of its important objectives is to provide highly localised weather forecasts, including forecasts useful at the panchayat-cluster level.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The system was developed through India’s meteorological and scientific research institutions; it was not developed by IIT Delhi as stated.

Therefore, statement 1 only is correct.

Question 85

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:

The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Boong is a film from Manipur, directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.

The film received international recognition and won the BAFTA Children’s and Family Film award. This was significant because it represented the first Indian film to achieve this particular BAFTA recognition.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

Question 86

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

Correct Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Blockchain records are designed to provide transparency and tamper resistance. Once validated and recorded, altering historical records is extremely difficult.

Statement 2 is correct. A blockchain uses a distributed ledger, with copies of ledger data maintained across participating nodes and synchronised through a consensus mechanism.

Statement 3 is incorrect. A consortium blockchain is generally a permissioned blockchain governed by a group of organisations. It is not necessarily a “blend” of public and private blockchains.

Statement 4 is correct in the context of the question. Cryptographic mechanisms and consensus protocols make unauthorised alteration or deletion of accepted blockchain records highly resistant.

Therefore, 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Question 87

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a) Dropshipping Model
(b) Affiliate Revenue Model
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(d) Agency Revenue Model

Correct Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

Explanation:

In dropshipping, the seller markets and sells products without maintaining physical inventory.

When a customer places an order:

Customer → Seller → Third-party supplier → Customer

The seller generally controls the retail price, while the supplier holds the inventory and fulfils the order.

This distinguishes dropshipping from an affiliate model, where the affiliate generally earns a commission for directing customers to another seller.

Question 88

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(c) Access, Usage, and Quality
(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Correct Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation:

The RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) measures the extent of financial inclusion using three major dimensions:

Access
Usage
Quality

The inclusion of Quality is particularly important because financial inclusion is not merely about opening bank accounts; it also concerns the quality and effectiveness of financial services.

Hence, option (c).

Question 89

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(b) To replace private e-commerce players
(c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Correct Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The central idea behind ONDC is interoperability.

Instead of requiring buyers and sellers to operate within a single closed e-commerce platform, ONDC seeks to create an open network in which different participants can interact across platforms.

The objective is therefore to:

broaden consumer choice,
enable participation by smaller sellers,
reduce dependence on large platforms, and
promote competition.

Hence, option (c) is the best description.

Question 90

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.

(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.

(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Correct Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The key distinction is between bank money and central bank money.

With UPI, a payment instruction facilitates the transfer of money held in bank accounts. The underlying liability is that of the relevant commercial bank.

The Digital Rupee (e₹), on the other hand, is a form of central bank digital currency issued by the RBI. It represents a direct liability of the central bank.

Therefore, the statement that liability in both cases lies with users and their respective banks is incorrect.

Hence, option (d).

Question 91

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
Tokenization of real world assets offers 24 x 7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation:

Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization involves representing ownership or economic claims over physical or traditional financial assets through digital tokens, commonly using blockchain or distributed-ledger technology.

Potential advantages include:

fractional ownership,
greater accessibility,
round-the-clock digital transfer,
improved liquidity, and
access to investment opportunities.

Thus, in the context presented by the question, all three statements are correct.

Question 92

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond
(b) Social Bond
(c) Sustainability Bond
(d) Sovereign Bond

Correct Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation:

A Green Bond finances environmental projects.

A Social Bond finances projects with social objectives.

A Sustainability Bond combines both categories and is used to finance or refinance projects having environmental as well as social objectives.

Therefore, the correct answer is Sustainability Bond — option (c).

Question 93

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Correct Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation:

M1xchange is a platform associated with Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) operations.

Its role is to facilitate the discounting of trade receivables, helping MSMEs obtain funds against eligible invoices and bills before their maturity.

Statement 1 is incorrect because the platform’s principal function is not to provide conventional collateral-based loans.

Statement 3 is incorrect because it does not function as a conventional credit-rating agency.

Hence, statement 2 only is correct.

Question 94

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending

(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

(c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment

(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Correct Answer: (b)

Explanation:

The crowding out effect occurs when increased government borrowing raises demand for available financial resources and can put upward pressure on interest rates.

Higher interest rates can make borrowing more expensive for private firms, thereby reducing private investment.

Thus:

Higher government borrowing → upward pressure on interest rates → reduced private investment

Therefore, option (b) is correct.

Question 95

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. REEs are important for many modern technologies, including permanent magnets, electronics, electric vehicles, renewable-energy technologies, defence systems and advanced computing applications.

Statement 2 is incorrect. Although China has a dominant position in rare-earth mining and especially in processing, India is not the second-largest mining country as stated.

Statement 3 is correct. India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to strengthen domestic capabilities and reduce vulnerabilities in critical-mineral supply chains.

Statement 4 is incorrect. The commonly recognised group of rare earth elements consists of 17 elements — the 15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium.

Therefore, 1 and 3 only are correct.

Question 96

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. Aviation Hull Insurance covers physical damage or loss involving the aircraft itself, including its principal components and equipment.

Statement 2 is correct in the context of the Montreal Convention’s liability framework. The Convention establishes a system of carrier liability for passenger death or injury, including strict liability up to the applicable first tier, without requiring proof of carrier fault.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Question 97

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Correct Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

Crowdfunding involves raising relatively small contributions from a large number of individuals, usually through an online platform, for a particular project, enterprise or purpose.

It can provide SMEs and other entities with an alternative source of finance and may reduce some of the conventional barriers associated with traditional fundraising.

Therefore, in the context of the question, both statements are correct.

Question 98

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Committee	Objective	Organisation under which it was formed
1.	R.N. Malhotra Committee	Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India	Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India
2.	L.C. Gupta Committee	Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India	Securities and Exchange Board of India
3.	Urjit R. Patel Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector	Reserve Bank of India
4.	Y.H. Malegam Committee	Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India	Reserve Bank of India

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Correct Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation:

Row 1 is incorrect. The R.N. Malhotra Committee was constituted by the Government/RBI context for comprehensive insurance-sector reforms, well before the establishment of IRDAI as the regulatory institution.

Row 2 is correct. The L.C. Gupta Committee was associated with the development of the framework for derivatives trading in India.

Row 3 is incorrect. The Urjit R. Patel Committee was associated with monetary-policy reform and the monetary-policy framework, not the stated housing-sector lending objective.

Row 4 is correct. The Y.H. Malegam Committee was associated with issues and reforms relating to the microfinance sector.

Hence, rows 2 and 4 only are correctly matched.

Question 99

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 4

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. NBFCs generally cannot accept demand deposits like banks.

Statement 2 is incorrect. The statement is too broad. Not every entity that may fall under the broad conceptual category of an NBFC necessarily has to be registered with RBI in the manner stated.

Statement 3 is incorrect. NBFCs are not equivalent to banks in the payment and settlement system and generally cannot issue cheques drawn on themselves in the manner described.

Statement 4 is correct. Deposits accepted by NBFCs do not enjoy DICGC deposit-insurance coverage in the same manner as eligible bank deposits.

Therefore, 1 and 4 only are correct.

Question 100

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has total of twelve indicators.
Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Correct Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct. The Alkire-Foster methodology is used for multidimensional poverty measurement.

Statement 2 is correct. India’s National Multidimensional Poverty Index prepared by NITI Aayog uses 12 indicators across dimensions such as health, education and standard of living.

Statement 3 is incorrect. The indicator frameworks used by NITI Aayog and the UNDP Global MPI are not identical. In particular, the statement incorrectly treats maternal health and bank account as common indicators in both frameworks.

Hence, 1 and 2 only are correct.