All Questions with Answers, Explanations & Analysis

Question 1

With reference to investments, consider the following:

I. Bonds
II. Hedge Funds
III. Stocks
IV. Venture Capital

How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation

Under the regulatory framework for Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India, hedge funds and venture capital funds fall within the alternative investment category.

Bonds are conventional debt instruments and are not, by themselves, AIFs.
Stocks are conventional equity-market instruments and are not AIFs by themselves.
Hedge Funds are alternative investment vehicles.
Venture Capital Funds are a recognised category of AIFs.

Therefore, II and IV are correct.

Answer: B — Only two.

Question 2

Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India?

I. Buying and selling Government bonds
II. Buying and selling foreign currency
III. Pension fund management
IV. Lending to private companies
V. Printing and distributing currency notes

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only
B. II, III and IV
C. I, III, IV and V
D. I, II and V

Correct Answer: D. I, II and V

Explanation

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) derives income from several activities associated with its monetary and currency-management functions.

Buying and selling Government bonds generates returns through the RBI’s holdings and transactions in government securities.
Buying and selling foreign currency is associated with management of India’s foreign-exchange reserves and generates income through returns on foreign assets and related operations.
Pension fund management is not a normal source of RBI income.
Lending to private companies is not a normal direct source of RBI income; RBI’s lending functions are primarily connected with the banking and financial system.
Currency issuance involves seigniorage—the economic benefit associated with issuing currency.

Therefore, I, II and V are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and V.

Question 3

With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information:

Organisation	Some of its functions	It works under
I. Directorate of Enforcement	Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018	Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs
II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence	Enforces the provisions of the Customs Act, 1962	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance
III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management	Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax administration and nab tax evaders	Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation

The question tests the institutional location and functions of specialised government agencies.

Statement I — Incorrect.
The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018, but the ED functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Internal Security Division of the Ministry of Home Affairs.

Statement II — Correct.
The Directorate of Revenue Intelligence (DRI) is the apex intelligence and investigative agency dealing with customs-related matters and functions under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.

Statement III — Incorrect.
The functions described in the statement regarding big-data analytics and tax-evasion risk analysis do not correctly correspond to the Directorate General of Systems and Data Management in the manner stated.

Thus, only Statement II is correctly matched.

Answer: A — Only one.

Question 4

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

Statement II:
In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: B. II only

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect.

The Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR) is associated with SEBI, not the Reserve Bank of India. It forms part of India’s corporate sustainability and ESG disclosure framework for specified listed entities.

Statement II is correct.

BRSR focuses largely on non-financial disclosures, including environmental, social and governance dimensions such as:

environmental performance,
energy and resource use,
employee-related matters,
social impact,
governance practices, and
responsible business conduct.

Therefore, only Statement II is correct.

Answer: B — II only.

Question 5

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax.

Statement II:
In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect.

Not every activity associated with agriculture is automatically treated as agricultural income under the Income-tax Act. Activities such as poultry farming and wool rearing do not automatically qualify as agricultural income merely because they take place in rural areas.

Statement II is correct.

Under the Income-tax Act, rural agricultural land in India is generally excluded from the definition of a capital asset. Consequently, gains arising from transfer of such land are generally outside the scope of capital-gains taxation.

Therefore:

Statement I — Incorrect
Statement II — Correct

Answer: D.

Question 6

Consider the following statements:

I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: C. I and III only

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP) in 2023. The MSP is an international initiative aimed at strengthening and diversifying supply chains for critical minerals.

Statement II is incorrect.

India has identified 30 critical minerals, but it is not resource-rich in all of them. India remains dependent on imports for several strategically important minerals such as lithium and cobalt.

Statement III is correct.

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2023 strengthened the role of the Central Government in auctioning mining leases and composite licences for specified critical minerals.

Therefore, I and III are correct.

Answer: C — I and III only.

Question 7

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II:
Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Statement III:
For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

A bondholder is a creditor, while a stockholder is an owner of the company.

Therefore:

Statement II is correct — bondholders lend money to the company, whereas stockholders hold an ownership interest.
Statement III is correct — in the event of liquidation, creditors generally have priority over equity shareholders in repayment.

These characteristics generally make the return profile of bonds less risky than ordinary equity, although bonds are not risk-free.

Thus, Statements II and III explain why bondholders are generally at lower risk than stockholders.

Answer: A.

Question 8

Consider the following statements:

I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

II. India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong’s at some point of time.

III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: A. I and II only

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

India has witnessed a major expansion in equity derivatives and options trading, with retail participation becoming particularly significant.

Statement II is correct.

India’s equity market has expanded rapidly and, during the period referred to in the question, India’s market capitalisation surpassed that of Hong Kong.

Statement III is incorrect.

India does have a securities-market regulator — the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). SEBI undertakes investor awareness activities and regulates securities-market intermediaries and investment advisers.

Therefore, I and II only are correct.

Answer: A.

Question 9

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

Statement II:
Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

Statement III:
Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

A circular economy seeks to minimise resource extraction and waste by keeping products and materials in use for as long as possible.

Statement II is correct.

Reuse, recycling, repair and remanufacturing reduce the demand for fresh raw materials.

Statement III is correct.

Circular production systems seek to reduce waste generation and maximise the productive use of materials.

Both processes can reduce energy use and resource extraction, thereby contributing to lower greenhouse-gas emissions.

Thus, Statements II and III are correct and both help explain Statement I.

Answer: A.

Question 10

Consider the following statements:

I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: A. I and II only

Explanation

Capital receipts are government receipts that either:

create a liability, or
reduce an asset of the government.

Statement I is correct.

This is the defining characteristic of capital receipts.

Statement II is correct.

Borrowings create a liability for the government.
Disinvestment involves the sale of government equity in public-sector enterprises and therefore reduces government assets.

Both are capital receipts.

Statement III is incorrect.

Interest received by the government on loans is a revenue receipt. It does not create a liability for the government.

Therefore, I and II only are correct.

Answer: A.

Question 11

Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy:

I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East.

II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: C. Both I and II

Explanation

Raja Ram Mohan Roy combined an appreciation of India’s intellectual traditions with a strong advocacy of reason, rationalism and social reform.

Statement I is correct.

Roy had considerable knowledge of Indian philosophical and religious traditions and did not reject them wholesale.

Statement II is also correct.

He advocated:

rational and scientific thinking,
reform of social practices,
human dignity,
equality, and
improvement in the position of women.

His reformist outlook was therefore neither a simple rejection of tradition nor an uncritical acceptance of it.

Answer: C — Both I and II.

Question 12

Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme:

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth

II. Observance of strict non-violence

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes

How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four

Correct Answer: C. Only three

Explanation

The Non-Cooperation Programme contained both boycott-oriented and constructive elements.

I — Correct.
Boycott of law courts and foreign cloth was part of the programme.

II — Correct.
The movement was based fundamentally on strict non-violence.

III — Incorrect.
The programme called for the surrender or renunciation of titles and honours, not merely retaining them while refraining from using them publicly.

IV — Correct.
The establishment of Panchayats was encouraged as an alternative mechanism for settling disputes outside colonial courts.

Thus, I, II and IV were part of the programme.

Three statements are correct.

Answer: C — Only three.

Question 13

The irrigation device called ‘Araghatta’ was

A. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

C. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

D. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Correct Answer: B. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

Explanation

The Araghatta was an ancient water-lifting device used for irrigation.

It consisted of a large wheel fitted with containers or pots, which lifted water as the wheel rotated. Such water-lifting technology could be operated with animal or human power.

It is broadly comparable to the family of Persian-wheel-type irrigation devices.

Therefore, option B correctly describes the Araghatta.

Answer: B.

Question 14

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles ‘Mattavilasa’, ‘Vichitrachitta’ and ‘Gunabhara’?

A. Mahendravarman I

B. Simhavishnu

C. Narasimhavarman I

D. Simhavarman

Correct Answer: A. Mahendravarman I

Explanation

The titles Mattavilasa, Vichitrachitta and Gunabhara are associated with Mahendravarman I, the Pallava ruler.

Mahendravarman I was an important early Pallava ruler and is particularly remembered for his contribution to:

rock-cut architecture,
literature,
music and the arts, and
the development of early Pallava architectural traditions.

He is also associated with the Sanskrit satirical play Mattavilasa Prahasana.

Therefore, the correct answer is Mahendravarman I.

Answer: A.

Question 15

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

A. Samudragupta

B. Chandragupta II

C. Kumaragupta I

D. Skandagupta

Correct Answer: B. Chandragupta II

Explanation

The Chinese Buddhist pilgrim Fa-hien (Faxian) travelled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II, also known as Vikramaditya.

Fa-hien visited India in the early fifth century CE, primarily to study Buddhist texts and monastic practices.

His account provides valuable information about:

Buddhist institutions,
social conditions,
administration, and
aspects of everyday life in Gupta-period India.

Thus, the correct answer is Chandragupta II.

Answer: B.

Question 16

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

A. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)

B. Prataparudra (Kakatiya)

C. Rajendra I (Chola)

D. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)

Correct Answer: C. Rajendra I (Chola)

Explanation

Rajendra I, the Chola ruler, conducted a major naval expedition against Srivijaya in the eleventh century CE.

The Chola expedition is significant because it demonstrates the strength of Chola naval power and the importance of maritime trade networks in the Indian Ocean and Southeast Asia.

The campaign targeted several centres associated with Srivijaya and helped the Cholas project power across the maritime routes connecting India with Southeast Asia.

Therefore, the correct answer is Rajendra I.

Answer: C.

Question 17

With reference to ancient India (600–322 BC), consider the following pairs:

Territorial region	River flowing in the region
I. Asmaka	Godavari
II. Kamboja	Vipas
III. Avanti	Mahanadi
IV. Kosala	Sarayu

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation

Let us examine the pairs individually.

I. Asmaka — Godavari: Correct

Asmaka was the southernmost among the major Mahajanapadas and was associated with the Godavari basin.

II. Kamboja — Vipas: Incorrect

The Vipas (Vipasa) is the ancient name associated with the Beas River. It was not the river specifically associated with the Kamboja region.

III. Avanti — Mahanadi: Incorrect

Avanti was situated in western India, particularly the Malwa region. Its geographical setting was associated with rivers such as the Shipra and Narmada, rather than the Mahanadi.

IV. Kosala — Sarayu: Correct

Kosala was situated in the region of present-day eastern Uttar Pradesh and was associated with the Sarayu/Ghaghara river system.

Therefore, I and IV are correctly matched.

Answer: B — Only two.

Question 18

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

A. Delhi

B. Gwalior

C. Ujjain

D. Lahore

Correct Answer: D. Lahore

Explanation

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established in Lahore in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar.

Paluskar played an important role in making Hindustani classical music education more accessible beyond the traditional hereditary gharana system.

The institution represented an important development in the institutionalisation and wider dissemination of Indian classical music.

Answer: D — Lahore.

Question 19

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the ‘Pradeshika’, ‘Rajuka’ and ‘Yukta’ were important officers at the

A. village-level administration

B. district-level administration

C. provincial administration

D. level of the central administration

Correct Answer: B. district-level administration

Explanation

The Pradeshika, Rajuka and Yukta were important officials in the administrative system of the Mauryan Empire.

They were associated particularly with district-level administration.

Their responsibilities included aspects of:

revenue administration,
land assessment,
inspection,
judicial and administrative functions, and
maintaining contact between the central authority and local administration.

The Rajuka, in particular, is associated with land assessment and judicial responsibilities.

Therefore, the correct answer is district-level administration.

Answer: B.

Question 20

Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

I. The Congress declared the attainment of ‘Swaraj’ by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if ‘Swaraj’ did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: C. Both I and II

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

At the Nagpur Session of the Indian National Congress in December 1920, the Congress adopted the objective of attaining Swaraj through all legitimate and peaceful means.

This marked an important change in the Congress’s political strategy and provided the ideological basis for the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Statement II is also correct.

The Non-Cooperation programme was conceived as a phased movement.

The initial stages involved measures such as:

surrender of titles,
boycott of government educational institutions,
boycott of law courts,
boycott of foreign cloth, and
withdrawal from certain colonial institutions.

A more advanced stage involving civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes was to follow if Swaraj was not achieved within the expected period and the government responded with repression.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Answer: C — Both I and II.

Question 21

Consider the following countries:

I. Austria
II. Bulgaria
III. Croatia
IV. Serbia
V. Sweden
VI. North Macedonia

How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

A. Only three
B. Only four
C. Only five
D. All the six

Correct Answer: B. Only four

Explanation

Among the six countries listed:

Austria — Not a NATO member; it maintains constitutional neutrality.
Bulgaria — NATO member since 2004.
Croatia — NATO member since 2009.
Serbia — Not a NATO member; it maintains a policy of military neutrality.
Sweden — Became NATO’s 32nd member in March 2024.
North Macedonia — Joined NATO in 2020.

Thus, Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden and North Macedonia are NATO members.

Therefore, four of the six countries are members.

Answer: B — Only four.

Question 22

Consider the following countries:

I. Bolivia
II. Brazil
III. Colombia
IV. Ecuador
V. Paraguay
VI. Venezuela

Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. Only five

Correct Answer: C. Only four

Explanation

The Andes Mountains extend along the western side of South America.

Among the countries listed, the Andes pass through:

Bolivia
Colombia
Ecuador
Venezuela

They do not pass through:

Brazil, which lies east of the Andes; or
Paraguay, which is also east of the main Andean system.

Therefore, the Andes pass through four of the countries listed.

Answer: C — Only four.

Question 23

Consider the following water bodies:

I. Lake Tanganyika
II. Lake Tonlé Sap
III. Patos Lagoon

Through how many of them does the equator pass?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: D. None

Explanation

The Equator is located at 0° latitude.

Lake Tanganyika lies south of the Equator, mainly between about 3°S and 9°S.
Lake Tonlé Sap is in Cambodia, around 13°N, and is therefore north of the Equator.
Patos Lagoon lies in southern Brazil, around 30°S, and is therefore well south of the Equator.

Hence, the Equator passes through none of the three water bodies.

Answer: D — None.

Question 24

Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022–23:

I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world.

II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India.

III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements are correct.

Statement I — Correct.

India is the world’s leading producer of turmeric and is also a major exporter. Turmeric occupies an important position in India’s agricultural and spice economy.

Statement II — Correct.

India grows more than 30 varieties of turmeric, reflecting the crop’s considerable genetic and regional diversity.

Statement III — Correct.

Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are among India’s important turmeric-producing states.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Question 25

Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift?

I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa.

II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side.

III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I, II and III
D. I and III only

Correct Answer: C. I, II and III

Explanation

All three are recognised as evidence supporting continental drift.

Statement I — Correct.

Ancient rock formations on the Brazilian coast correspond closely with geological formations on the western coast of Africa. Such matching geological structures suggest that the two landmasses were once joined.

Statement II — Correct.

The geological relationship between gold-bearing formations in Ghana and formations in the Brazilian region provides another indication that the two regions were once part of the same connected landmass.

Statement III — Correct.

The Gondwana system of sediments found in India has counterparts in other southern landmasses, providing evidence that these regions were once connected as parts of Gondwanaland.

Therefore, all three statements constitute evidence of continental drift.

Answer: C — I, II and III.

Question 26

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

Statement II:
Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

Dust concentration tends to be higher in subtropical and temperate regions, particularly because of the presence of dry regions, deserts, exposed soil and suitable wind conditions.

The equatorial regions receive heavy rainfall, which helps remove atmospheric dust through wet deposition. Polar regions also have comparatively limited dust sources.

Statement II is incorrect.

Subtropical regions, especially the world’s major desert belts, are characterised by dry conditions and dry winds. It is precisely these conditions that help lift and transport dust particles.

Therefore:

Statement I — Correct
Statement II — Incorrect

Answer: C.

Question 27

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

Statement II:
In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

In January, it is winter in the Northern Hemisphere. Landmasses cool more rapidly than oceans. Consequently:

over colder land, isotherms bend equatorward;
over relatively warmer oceans, they bend poleward.

Statement II is also correct.

Oceans retain heat longer because water has a much greater heat capacity than land. Therefore, during Northern Hemisphere winter, air over oceans is generally warmer than air over adjacent land at comparable latitudes.

The important nuance in the UPSC question is the explanatory relationship. Statement II gives the temperature contrast, but Statement I concerns the actual pattern of isotherm deviation resulting from the differential heating and cooling of land and water. The final-key treatment therefore marks B.

Answer: B.

Exam lesson: In UPSC’s Statement I–Statement II questions, establishing that Statement II is related to Statement I is not enough. One must determine whether it actually explains Statement I.

Question 28

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

Statement II:
Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

Statement III:
Clay is not at all porous.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation

Statement II is correct.

Chalk is porous and can absorb and transmit water. Its relatively high permeability is associated with the interconnected nature of its pores and fractures.

Statement III is incorrect.

Clay is not literally non-porous. Clay can have considerable porosity, but its pores are extremely small and poorly interconnected. Consequently, water moves through clay very slowly, making it impermeable or least permeable despite its porosity.

Thus:

Statement II — Correct
Statement III — Incorrect

Statement II explains the permeability characteristic mentioned in Statement I.

Answer: C.

Important conceptual distinction: Porosity ≠ permeability. A material can be highly porous but still have very low permeability if its pores are not effectively interconnected.

Question 29

Consider the following statements:

I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth’s surface.

II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet’s average temperature.

III. Atmosphere’s gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements are treated as correct.

Statement I — Correct.

The atmosphere plays a critical role in maintaining Earth’s surface temperature. Without an atmosphere, the average surface temperature would be far lower, well below the freezing point of water.

Statement II — Correct.

The atmosphere absorbs and re-emits outgoing terrestrial radiation. This greenhouse effect helps maintain Earth’s average surface temperature at a level suitable for life.

Statement III — Correct.

Greenhouse gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapour and methane absorb outgoing long-wave terrestrial radiation and re-radiate energy, contributing to atmospheric warming.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Question 30

Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission:

I. It is important for the upliftment of rural small and marginal farmers and landless labourers.

II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing with scientific and conservation approaches.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: C. Both I and II

Explanation

The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) is a major government programme concerned with the development and conservation of India’s indigenous bovine breeds.

Statement I is correct.

Livestock plays an important role in rural livelihoods, particularly for:

small and marginal farmers,
landless agricultural households, and
rural communities dependent on dairy and allied activities.

Improving indigenous cattle productivity can therefore contribute to rural income and livelihood security.

Statement II is correct.

The mission seeks to promote the development and conservation of indigenous cattle breeds, while improving breeding practices and productivity through scientific methods.

Therefore, both statements are correct.

Answer: C — Both I and II.

Question 31

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

Statement II:
Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

Statement III:
Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation

Statement II is correct.

Cement production uses limestone together with silica-bearing materials such as clay as important raw materials.

Statement III is also correct.

During clinker production, limestone undergoes calcination:

CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂

This chemical process directly releases a large quantity of carbon dioxide.

Thus, while Statement II correctly describes the manufacturing process, it is Statement III that directly explains why cement manufacturing produces substantial CO₂ emissions.

Therefore:

II — Correct
III — Correct
Only III directly explains I.

Answer: B.

Question 32

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the ‘Declaration on Climate and Health’.

Statement II:
The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector.

Statement III:
If India’s health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

India did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health.

Statement II is incorrect.

The declaration was not legally binding. It was a voluntary political commitment and did not create a mandatory legal obligation for signatories to decarbonise their health sectors.

Statement III is treated as correct.

India’s concern was that a rapid and extensive decarbonisation requirement could impose additional pressures on an already resource-constrained healthcare system, potentially affecting its resilience and ability to provide services.

Thus, only Statement III among II and III is correct and it explains India’s position.

Answer: C.

Question 33

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth’s rotation and axis.

Statement II:
Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth’s outermost atmosphere with a tremendous amount of energy.

Statement III:
As the Earth’s polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation

Statement II is correct.

Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) release enormous amounts of energy and charged particles that interact with Earth’s upper atmosphere and magnetosphere.

However, this does not explain the shift in Earth’s rotational axis referred to in Statement I.

Statement III is correct.

Melting of polar ice redistributes water mass from the polar regions towards lower latitudes, including the equatorial region. Redistribution of Earth’s mass can influence the planet’s rotation and polar motion.

Therefore:

II — Correct
III — Correct
III explains I, whereas II does not.

Answer: B.

Question 34

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

Statement II:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

Statement III:
Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Explanation

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement provides a framework for international cooperation in achieving climate targets.

It contains three broad components:

Article 6.2 — cooperative approaches involving internationally transferred mitigation outcomes;
Article 6.4 — a UN-supervised mechanism for generating and trading emission reductions; and
Article 6.8 — non-market approaches involving cooperation through areas such as finance, technology transfer and capacity building.

Therefore:

Statement II is correct.
Article 6 provides the framework for international carbon-market mechanisms.

Statement III is also correct.
Article 6.8 specifically promotes non-market approaches for international climate cooperation.

Both features contribute to the importance of Article 6 in global climate negotiations.

Answer: A.

Question 35

Which one of the following launched the ‘Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific’?

A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

B. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

C. The New Development Bank (NDB)

D. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

Correct Answer: A. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

Explanation

The Asian Development Bank (ADB) launched the Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific.

The initiative seeks to mobilise finance for nature-based solutions, biodiversity conservation and climate resilience in the Asia-Pacific region.

It is particularly significant because nature-based solutions can simultaneously address:

climate change,
biodiversity loss,
ecosystem degradation, and
community resilience.

Answer: A — Asian Development Bank.

Question 36

With reference to ‘Direct Air Capture’, an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct?

I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only

B. III only

C. I, II and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Correct Answer: C. I, II and III

Explanation

Direct Air Capture (DAC) refers to technologies that directly remove carbon dioxide from ambient air.

Statement I — Correct.

Captured CO₂ can be permanently stored in suitable geological formations, thereby functioning as a form of carbon removal/sequestration.

Statement II — Correct.

Captured CO₂ can also be used as an industrial feedstock. Potential applications include:

plastics and chemical products,
synthetic materials, and
food and beverage processing.

Statement III — Correct.

Captured CO₂ can be combined with hydrogen produced using low-carbon electricity to manufacture synthetic fuels, including potential low-carbon aviation fuels.

Thus, all three statements are correct.

Answer: C — I, II and III.

Question 37

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements:

I. It is an omnivorous crustacean.

II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and III

C. II only

D. II and III

Correct Answer: D. II and III

Explanation

The Peacock tarantula, also known as the Gooty tarantula, is a spider and therefore an arachnid, not a crustacean.

Statement I — Incorrect.

It is not an omnivorous crustacean. It is a tarantula, belonging to the class Arachnida.

Statement II — Correct.

The species is endemic to a very restricted forest habitat in Andhra Pradesh and has a highly limited natural distribution.

Statement III — Correct.

The Peacock tarantula is an arboreal species in its natural habitat, living primarily in trees and tree cavities.

Therefore, II and III are correct.

Answer: D — II and III.

Question 38

Consider the following statements:

I. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO₂/capita.

II. In terms of CO₂ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO₂ emissions in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: C. II and III only

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect.

India’s per-capita CO₂ emissions are higher than 0.5 tonnes per person. Although India’s per-capita emissions remain substantially below those of several developed economies, they are not below the 0.5 t CO₂/capita level stated here.

Statement II is correct.

In the Asia-Pacific region, India is among the largest emitters of CO₂ from fuel combustion and ranks second after China.

Statement III is correct.

The electricity and heat sector is a major source of India’s CO₂ emissions because of the country’s substantial dependence on fossil fuels, particularly coal, for electricity generation.

Therefore, II and III only are correct.

Answer: C.

Question 39

Consider the following pairs:

Plant	Description
I. Cassava	Woody shrub
II. Ginger	Herb with pseudostem
III. Malabar spinach	Herbaceous climber
IV. Mint	Annual shrub
V. Papaya	Woody shrub

In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?

A. Only two
B. Only three
C. Only four
D. All the five

Correct Answer: B. Only three

Explanation

Let us examine the pairs:

I. Cassava — Woody shrub: Correct

Cassava is a perennial woody shrub cultivated primarily for its starchy tuberous roots.

II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem: Correct

Ginger is a herbaceous plant. Its apparent stem is a pseudostem formed by tightly overlapping leaf sheaths.

III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber: Correct

Malabar spinach is a herbaceous climbing vine.

IV. Mint — Annual shrub: Incorrect

Mint is generally a perennial herb, not an annual shrub.

V. Papaya — Woody shrub: Incorrect

Papaya is commonly described as a large herbaceous plant or tree-like herb, rather than a woody shrub.

Thus, three pairs — I, II and III — are correctly matched.

Answer: B — Only three.

Question 40

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements:

I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

II. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world’s oxygen.

III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I and II

B. II only

C. I and III

D. None of the above statements is correct

Correct Answer: B. II only

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect.

Although rainforests are major producers of oxygen through photosynthesis, the oceans are the dominant source of global oxygen production, particularly through marine phytoplankton and other photosynthetic organisms.

Statement II is correct.

Marine phytoplankton, algae and photosynthetic bacteria collectively account for roughly half of the world’s oxygen production.

Statement III is incorrect.

Dissolved oxygen concentrations in water are much lower than the concentration of oxygen in the atmosphere. Therefore, well-oxygenated surface water does not contain several times more oxygen than atmospheric air.

Thus, only Statement II is correct.

Answer: B — II only.

Question 41

Consider the following types of vehicles:

I. Full battery electric vehicles
II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles
III. Fuel cell-electric hybrid vehicles

How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: C. All the three

Explanation

An alternative powertrain refers to a propulsion system that differs from the conventional internal-combustion-engine system based primarily on petrol or diesel.

All three listed vehicle types use alternative propulsion technologies:

Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs) use electricity stored in batteries to power electric motors.
Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCVs) generate electricity through a fuel-cell system using hydrogen.
Fuel Cell-Electric Hybrid Vehicles combine fuel-cell technology with an electric propulsion system and may also incorporate battery storage.

Therefore, all three qualify as alternative powertrain vehicles.

Answer: C — All the three.

Question 42

With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements:

I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing.

II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering.

III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: D. None

Explanation

The question uses the word “all”, making each statement unnecessarily absolute.

Statement I — Incorrect.

Not all UAVs are capable of vertical landing. Vertical take-off and landing is characteristic of certain multirotor and VTOL designs, but conventional fixed-wing UAVs generally require a runway, launcher or other recovery mechanism.

Statement II — Incorrect.

Not all UAVs can perform automated hovering. Hovering requires a propulsion and flight-control configuration capable of maintaining position against gravity and aerodynamic forces. Fixed-wing aircraft cannot simply hover like multirotor UAVs.

Statement III — Incorrect.

UAVs can use different power sources, including:

batteries,
internal-combustion engines,
hybrid propulsion systems,
fuel cells, and
other specialised power systems.

Thus, none of the three statements is correct.

Answer: D — None.

Question 43

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements:

I. Cobalt
II. Graphite
III. Lithium
IV. Nickel

How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four

Correct Answer: C. Only three

Explanation

The question requires distinguishing the materials used in the cathode from those used in the anode of a lithium-ion battery.

Cobalt — used in several cathode chemistries.
Lithium — a fundamental component of lithium-ion cathode materials.
Nickel — used extensively in nickel-rich cathode chemistries such as NMC and NCA.
Graphite — commonly used as the anode material, not the cathode.

Therefore, cobalt, lithium and nickel are the three listed elements commonly associated with battery cathodes.

Answer: C — Only three.

Prelims concept: In conventional lithium-ion batteries, graphite → anode, while lithium-containing metal oxides/phosphates → cathode.

Question 44

Consider the following:

I. Cigarette butts
II. Eyeglass lenses
III. Car tyres

How many of them contain plastic?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: C. All the three

Explanation

All three contain polymeric/plastic materials.

Cigarette butts commonly contain filters made from cellulose acetate, a plastic-like synthetic polymer.

Eyeglass lenses are frequently made from synthetic polymers such as polycarbonate or various plastic optical materials.

Car tyres contain substantial amounts of synthetic rubber and polymeric materials derived from petrochemical feedstocks, along with natural rubber and other components.

Thus, all three contain plastic/polymeric materials.

Answer: C — All the three.

Question 45

Consider the following substances:

I. Ethanol
II. Nitroglycerine
III. Urea

Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation

Coal gasification converts coal into syngas, primarily containing carbon monoxide and hydrogen. This syngas can subsequently serve as a feedstock for producing a variety of chemicals and fuels.

Ethanol — Correct.
Syngas can be converted through appropriate catalytic and biochemical routes into alcohols, including ethanol.

Nitroglycerine — Incorrect.
Nitroglycerine is an explosive nitrate ester produced through the nitration of glycerol. Coal gasification is not a conventional route for its production.

Urea — Correct.
Coal-derived syngas can provide hydrogen for ammonia production, while carbon dioxide generated during the process can be utilised in urea manufacture. Thus, coal can indirectly serve as a feedstock for urea production.

Therefore, two of the three substances can be produced using coal-gasification-derived feedstocks.

Answer: B — Only two.

Question 46

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

A. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants.

B. These are explosives in military weapons.

C. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles.

D. These are fuels for rocket propulsion.

Correct Answer: B. These are explosives in military weapons.

Explanation

CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 belong to the family of highly energetic explosive compounds.

HMX is a powerful high explosive used in military applications.
CL-20 is an extremely energetic high explosive with a very high detonation performance.
LLM-105 is another advanced high-energy explosive compound.

They are therefore associated with military explosives and energetic materials, rather than conventional fuels or refrigerants.

Answer: B.

Question 47

Consider the following statements:

I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing.

II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS).

III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: C. I and III only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.

The Majorana 1 chip was announced as a quantum-computing-related technological development based on Microsoft’s work involving Majorana zero modes and topological quantum computing.

The broader objective is to develop scalable quantum computing using topological approaches.

Statement II — Incorrect.

Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft, not Amazon Web Services.

Statement III — Correct.

Deep learning is a subset of machine learning.

The relationship can be represented as:

Artificial Intelligence → Machine Learning → Deep Learning

Deep learning uses multi-layered artificial neural networks to learn increasingly complex patterns from data.

Therefore, I and III only are correct.

Answer: C — I and III only.

Question 48

With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements:

I. They are man-made proteins.

II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens.

III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

Monoclonal antibodies (mAbs) are laboratory-produced antibodies designed to recognise a particular antigen or molecular target.

Statement I — Correct.

They are manufactured biological proteins produced using biotechnology.

Statement II — Correct.

Their therapeutic value comes from their ability to bind specifically to target antigens or molecules. Depending on their design, they can neutralise pathogens, block receptors, modify immune responses or otherwise influence disease processes.

Statement III — Correct.

Monoclonal-antibody approaches have been explored and developed for serious viral diseases, including Nipah virus infection. Neutralising antibodies can potentially prevent viral entry into host cells and reduce disease severity.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Question 49

Consider the following statements:

I. No virus can survive in ocean waters.

II. No virus can infect bacteria.

III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: D. None

Explanation

All three statements are incorrect because they use absolute language.

Statement I — Incorrect.

Viruses are abundant in marine ecosystems. Ocean waters contain enormous numbers of viruses, including bacteriophages and viruses infecting marine organisms.

Statement II — Incorrect.

Viruses that infect bacteria are called bacteriophages or phages.

They are an important component of microbial ecosystems and play a major role in controlling bacterial populations and transferring genetic material.

Statement III — Incorrect.

Viruses can alter the transcriptional activity of host cells. Many viruses manipulate host-cell gene expression to facilitate viral replication and evade host immune responses.

Thus, none of the three statements is correct.

Answer: D — None.

Question 50

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Activated carbon is a good and an attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries.

Statement II:
Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals.

Statement III:
Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

C. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

D. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Correct Answer: B. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Explanation

Statement II is correct.

Activated carbon has an exceptionally large specific surface area because of its porous structure. This makes it highly effective as an adsorbent for many pollutants, including certain heavy metals and organic contaminants.

Statement III is also correct.

Activated carbon can be produced from various carbon-rich waste materials, including:

agricultural residues,
biomass,
industrial wastes, and
other carbon-containing materials.

However, the reason it is particularly effective for pollutant removal in Statement I is primarily its large surface area and adsorption capacity, as described in Statement II.

Thus:

Statement II — Correct
Statement III — Correct
Statement II directly explains Statement I; Statement III does not directly explain the effectiveness described in Statement I.

Answer: B.

Question 51

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.

II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.

III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: C. I and III only

Explanation

The President’s ordinance-making power is provided under Article 123, while the Governor’s corresponding power is under Article 213.

Statement I — Correct.

An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament while it remains in operation. Therefore, subject to constitutional limitations, an Ordinance can amend or repeal an existing Central law.

Statement II — Incorrect.

An Ordinance is subordinate to the Constitution. It cannot validly abridge or violate Fundamental Rights.

Statement III — Correct.

An Ordinance may have retrospective operation, provided the underlying legislative power permits such retrospective legislation and there is no other constitutional prohibition.

Therefore, I and III only are correct.

Answer: C — I and III only.

Question 52

Consider the following pairs:

State	Description
I. Arunachal Pradesh	The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
II. Nagaland	The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
III. Tripura	Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: C. All the three

Explanation

Pair I — Correct.

The capital of Arunachal Pradesh, Itanagar, derives its name from the Ita Fort. The State has two National Parks:

Namdapha National Park
Mouling National Park

Pair II — Correct in the constitutional framing of the question.

Nagaland became a separate State in 1963 following the constitutional and legislative process associated with the 13th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1962, which inserted Article 371A providing special constitutional provisions for Nagaland.

Pair III — Correct.

Tripura was initially a Part C State. It became a Union Territory following the reorganisation of States in 1956 and subsequently attained full statehood under the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971, with statehood taking effect in 1972.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Answer: C — All the three.

Question 53

With reference to India, consider the following:

I. The Inter-State Council
II. The National Security Council
III. Zonal Councils

How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: A. Only one

Explanation

The question tests the distinction between constitutional, statutory and executive bodies.

I. Inter-State Council — Constitutional basis

The Inter-State Council has a constitutional basis under Article 263. The President may establish such a council when it appears that the public interest would be served by doing so.

Therefore, I is correct.

II. National Security Council — Not constitutional

The National Security Council (NSC) was established through an executive decision of the Government of India in 1998. It is not a constitutional body.

Therefore, II is incorrect.

III. Zonal Councils — Statutory

The Zonal Councils were created under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956. They are statutory bodies, not constitutional bodies.

Therefore, III is incorrect.

Hence, only one of the three has a constitutional basis.

Answer: A — Only one.

Question 54

Consider the following statements:

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a Bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: A. I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.

The Constitution expressly recognises situations in which the Governor acts in his/her discretion. This is distinct from situations where the Governor ordinarily acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

For example, the Constitution contains specific provisions under which the Governor exercises discretionary functions in certain constitutional circumstances.

Statement II — Incorrect.

Under Article 200, the Governor has the power to reserve certain Bills passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.

The President does not independently receive and reserve a State Bill without the Bill first being forwarded by the Governor through the constitutional mechanism.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Answer: A — I only.

Question 55

Consider the following pairs:

Provision in the Constitution of India	Stated under
I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State	The Directive Principles of State Policy
II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture	The Fundamental Duties
III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories	The Fundamental Rights

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: C. All the three

Explanation

All three pairs are correctly matched.

Pair I — Correct

Article 50 directs the State to take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State.

Article 50 is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

Pair II — Correct

Article 51A(f) places upon citizens the Fundamental Duty to value and preserve the rich heritage of India’s composite culture.

Pair III — Correct

Article 24, a Fundamental Right, prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories, mines or other hazardous employment.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Answer: C — All the three.

Question 56

Consider the following statements:

With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule:

I. The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.

II. The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only
B. II only
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: D. Neither I nor II

Explanation

This question tests a very important feature of the Fifth Schedule.

Statement I — Incorrect.

The State Government does not lose its executive power over Scheduled Areas.

The Fifth Schedule provides a special administrative framework, including:

a special responsibility of the Governor,
a Tribes Advisory Council in the circumstances prescribed by the Schedule,
special powers of the Governor regarding application of laws, and
protective provisions concerning tribal interests.

But the State Government continues to exercise executive power.

Statement II — Incorrect.

The Union’s executive power extends to giving directions to States regarding the administration of Scheduled Areas. This does not mean that the Union Government can simply take over the entire administration of such areas on the Governor’s recommendation.

A constitutional takeover of a State’s administration would involve a different constitutional mechanism, such as Article 356, and is not a consequence provided by the Fifth Schedule itself.

Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Answer: D — Neither I nor II.

Question 57

With reference to India, consider the following pairs:

Organisation	Union Ministry
I. The National Automotive Board	Ministry of Commerce and Industry
II. The Coir Board	Ministry of Heavy Industries
III. The National Centre for Trade Information	Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. All the three
D. None

Correct Answer: D. None

Explanation

All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

I. National Automotive Board — Incorrect

The National Automotive Board is associated with the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

II. Coir Board — Incorrect

The Coir Board functions under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not the Ministry of Heavy Industries.

III. National Centre for Trade Information — Incorrect

The National Centre for Trade Information (NCTI) is associated with the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not the Ministry of MSME.

Thus, none of the three pairs is correctly matched.

Answer: D — None.

Question 58

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:

I. List I (Union List) in the Seventh Schedule
II. Extent of the executive power of a State
III. Conditions of the Governor’s office

For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the Bill to the President of India for assent?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: A. I only

Explanation

Article 368 provides for different procedures for constitutional amendment.

Some amendments require, in addition to the special majority of Parliament, ratification by at least half of the State Legislatures.

This applies to matters affecting, among other things:

the election of the President,
the extent of executive power of the Union and States in specified constitutional contexts,
the Supreme Court and High Courts,
distribution of legislative powers between Union and States,
any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule, and
representation of States in Parliament.

Statement I — Correct

An amendment affecting the Union List in the Seventh Schedule requires ratification by at least half of the States.

Statement II — Incorrect

The general provision concerning the extent of the executive power of a State is not independently included in the category requiring State ratification merely because it concerns Article 162.

Statement III — Incorrect

The conditions of the Governor’s office do not fall within the specific list of provisions requiring State ratification under Article 368.

Therefore, only I is correct.

Answer: A — I only.

Question 59

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements are correct.

Statement I — Correct

Article 361 provides constitutional immunity to the President and Governors from being answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of their office.

Statement II — Correct

Article 361 also provides that no criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or Governor during the term of office.

This does not mean permanent immunity; the protection is linked to the term of office.

Statement III — Correct

Under Article 194, members of a State Legislature enjoy parliamentary privilege concerning what they say or how they vote in the Legislature, subject to the constitutional framework governing legislative privileges.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Question 60

Consider the following activities:

I. Production of crude oil
II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum
III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products
IV. Production of natural gas

How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?

A. Only one
B. Only two
C. Only three
D. All the four

Correct Answer: B. Only two

Explanation

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under the PNGRB Act, 2006.

The key distinction is between upstream production and downstream/midstream activities.

I. Production of crude oil — Not regulated by PNGRB

Crude oil exploration and production are upstream activities and fall outside the principal regulatory mandate of PNGRB.

II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum — Correct

These are among the downstream/midstream activities falling within the regulatory framework associated with PNGRB.

III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products — Correct

PNGRB regulates specified aspects of the marketing and sale of petroleum products and natural gas.

IV. Production of natural gas — Not regulated by PNGRB

Natural-gas production is an upstream activity and is outside PNGRB’s regulatory mandate.

Therefore, II and III are the two activities covered.

Answer: B — Only two.

Question 61

Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct?

I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.

II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.

III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

The question tests three important concepts of public finance.

Statement I — Correct

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts

= ₹80,000 crore − ₹60,000 crore

= ₹20,000 crore

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II — Correct

In the simplified situation given in the question, the government’s borrowings of ₹10,000 crore represent the fiscal deficit.

Therefore:

Fiscal Deficit = ₹10,000 crore

Statement II is correct.

Statement III — Correct

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

= ₹10,000 crore − ₹6,000 crore

= ₹4,000 crore

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Prelims formula:
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure − Revenue Receipts
Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure − Total Receipts excluding borrowings
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

Question 62

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

B. India to Central Asia via China

C. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar

D. India to Europe through Azerbaijan

Correct Answer: A. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran

Explanation

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal network involving sea, rail and road transport.

India, Iran and Russia were the original founding participants in the 2000 agreement.

The broad route connects India with Iran, the Caspian region, Russia, Central Asia and Europe.

Iran is therefore a critical geographical component of the corridor.

Why the other options are incorrect:

B: China is not the defining route of INSTC.
C: Bangladesh–Myanmar is associated with India’s connectivity towards Southeast Asia, not INSTC.
D: Azerbaijan is an important participant and route component, but the broader description of the corridor in the question is India–Central Asia–Europe via Iran.

Answer: A.

Question 63

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter.

Statement II:
Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

B. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

C. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Correct Answer: D. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Explanation

Statement I is incorrect.

The United States, not Brazil, is the world’s largest producer of ethanol.

Statement II is correct.

The major feedstocks differ:

United States → corn
Brazil → sugarcane

Brazil’s sugarcane-based ethanol has important advantages in terms of energy balance and production efficiency.

Therefore:

Statement I — Incorrect
Statement II — Correct

Answer: D.

Question 64

The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statements best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report?

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: C. Both I and II

Explanation

The wet-bulb temperature combines the effects of temperature and humidity and is particularly important for assessing the human body’s ability to cool itself through evaporation of sweat.

At very high wet-bulb temperatures, the body’s ability to regulate its temperature becomes severely impaired.

Statement I — Correct

Climate change can increase the frequency and intensity of several extreme events, including:

flooding,
tropical cyclones, and
droughts.

Peninsular India is particularly exposed to multiple climate-related hazards.

Statement II — Correct

When humidity is extremely high, sweat evaporates less effectively. Even if a person sweats heavily, the body cannot lose heat efficiently.

A sustained wet-bulb temperature approaching 35°C therefore represents a potentially severe physiological threat to humans and other animals.

Thus, both statements are correct.

Answer: C — Both I and II.

Key concept: Wet-bulb temperature is not simply air temperature. It incorporates the cooling effect of evaporation and therefore becomes especially important under conditions of high heat and humidity.

Question 65

A country’s fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country’s interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

A. ₹48,500 crores

B. ₹51,500 crores

C. ₹58,500 crores

D. None of the above

Correct Answer: A. ₹48,500 crores

Explanation

The formula is:

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit − Interest Payments

Given:

Fiscal Deficit = ₹50,000 crore
Interest liabilities = ₹1,500 crore

Therefore:

Primary Deficit = ₹50,000 − ₹1,500

= ₹48,500 crore

The ₹10,000 crore of non-debt creating capital receipts does not need to be separately deducted because the fiscal deficit figure given in the question already represents the financing gap.

Therefore:

Answer: A — ₹48,500 crores.

Question 66

Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct?

I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022–23 to the year 2025–26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes.

II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States.

III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms.

IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. I, II and III

B. I, II and IV

C. I, III and IV

D. II, III and IV

Correct Answer: C. I, III and IV

Explanation

Statement I — Correct

The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹4,800 crore in grants for improving educational outcomes during 2022–23 to 2025–26.

Statement II — Incorrect

The 15th Finance Commission recommended 41%, not 45%, of the divisible pool of Union taxes for devolution to States.

The 41% figure was retained from the previous Finance Commission framework after accounting for the changed status of Jammu and Kashmir.

Statement III — Correct

The Commission recommended ₹45,000 crore as performance-based incentives linked to agricultural reforms.

Statement IV — Correct

The tax effort criterion was reintroduced in the horizontal devolution formula to reward States demonstrating better fiscal performance.

Therefore, I, III and IV are correct.

Answer: C.

Question 67

Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD):

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. II and III only

C. I and III only

D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: C. I and III only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct

The IBRD, one of the institutions of the World Bank Group, provides loans, guarantees and other financial support primarily to middle-income and creditworthy lower-income countries.

Statement II — Incorrect

The IBRD does not work single-handedly to reduce poverty. Poverty reduction and development assistance involve multiple institutions, governments and agencies.

The IBRD itself is part of the broader World Bank Group.

Statement III — Correct

The IBRD was established in the aftermath of the Second World War, with the original objective of helping finance reconstruction in Europe and later supporting broader development.

Therefore, Statements I and III are correct.

Answer: C — I and III only.

Question 68

Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT:

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. I and II

C. I and III

D. III only

Correct Answer: A. I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct

RTGS — Real Time Gross Settlement processes transactions individually and in real time.

NEFT — National Electronic Funds Transfer works through a deferred settlement mechanism, with transactions processed in batches.

Therefore, RTGS provides real-time settlement whereas NEFT involves some processing time.

Statement II — Incorrect

Customers are not charged for receiving/inward transactions in RTGS. The statement incorrectly suggests that inward RTGS transactions attract customer charges.

Statement III — Incorrect

Both RTGS and NEFT are now available 24×7 throughout the year, subject to the banking system’s operational framework.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Answer: A — I only.

Question 69

Consider the following countries:

I. United Arab Emirates
II. France
III. Germany
IV. Singapore
V. Bangladesh

How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

A. Only two

B. Only three

C. Only four

D. All the five

Correct Answer: B. Only three

Explanation

India has been expanding UPI’s international footprint through bilateral arrangements and linkages with foreign payment systems.

Among the countries listed, international UPI merchant-payment acceptance was associated with:

United Arab Emirates
France
Singapore

Germany and Bangladesh were not included in the relevant international merchant-payment network at the time referred to by the question.

Therefore, three countries are correct.

Answer: B — Only three.

Prelims lesson: Questions involving digital-payment systems often require attention to the specific type of international linkage—merchant acceptance, remittance, or interoperability—not merely whether UPI has any presence in a country.

Question 70

Consider the following statements about ‘PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana’:

I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector.

II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels.

III. It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

A. I and II only

B. I and III only

C. II and III only

D. I, II and III

Correct Answer: D. I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements correctly describe important components of the PM Surya Ghar: Muft Bijli Yojana.

Statement I — Correct

The scheme aims to facilitate rooftop solar installations for one crore households in the residential sector.

Statement II — Correct

The scheme includes capacity building and training for personnel involved in:

installation,
operation,
maintenance, and
repair of rooftop solar systems.

Statement III — Correct

The scheme envisages creating more than three lakh skilled personnel through fresh skilling and up-skilling.

Therefore, all three statements are correct.

Answer: D — I, II and III.

Question 71

“Sedition has become my religion” was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

A. the Champaran Satyagraha

B. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

C. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London

D. the launch of the Quit India Movement

Correct Answer: B. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi

Explanation

Mahatma Gandhi made the famous statement “Sedition has become my religion” in the context of his challenge to British colonial authority during the Civil Disobedience Movement.

The statement is associated with the Dandi Salt March, where Gandhi openly violated the colonial government’s Salt Law.

On 6 April 1930, Gandhi broke the Salt Law at Dandi, symbolically challenging the legitimacy of British rule.

The Salt Satyagraha therefore represented not merely a protest against the salt tax but a wider assertion of the right to resist unjust colonial authority through non-violent civil disobedience.

Answer: B.

Question 72

The famous female figurine known as ‘Dancing Girl’, found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

A. carnelian

B. clay

C. bronze

D. gold

Correct Answer: C. bronze

Explanation

The famous Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-daro is a bronze figurine belonging to the Harappan Civilization.

It was produced using the lost-wax technique, demonstrating the sophisticated metallurgical and artistic skills of Harappan craftsmen.

The figurine is particularly important because it provides evidence of:

advanced bronze casting,
artistic representation of the human form,
knowledge of metallurgy, and
the cultural sophistication of Harappan urban society.

Answer: C — bronze.

Question 73

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident?

A. C. R. Das

B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

C. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami

D. M. A. Jinnah

Correct Answer: B. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant

Explanation

The Chauri Chaura incident occurred in February 1922 when a protest by participants in the Non-Cooperation Movement turned violent and resulted in the killing of policemen.

The colonial government arrested and prosecuted a large number of people in connection with the incident.

Madan Mohan Malaviya, along with Krishna Kant, provided legal defence to those arrested.

The episode is historically important because Gandhi regarded the violence at Chauri Chaura as incompatible with the principle of non-violence, leading him to suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement.

Answer: B.

Question 74

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of ‘Harijans’ in his political and social programme?

A. The Poona Pact

B. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)

C. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement

D. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935

Correct Answer: A. The Poona Pact

Explanation

The Poona Pact of 1932 emerged from the controversy surrounding separate electorates for the Depressed Classes proposed under the Communal Award.

Gandhi strongly opposed separate electorates for the Depressed Classes and undertook a fast in Yeravada Jail.

The resulting Poona Pact provided for reserved seats for the Depressed Classes within a joint electorate.

Following the Pact, Gandhi intensified his campaign against untouchability.

The All-India Anti-Untouchability League, later known as the Harijan Sevak Sangh, was established in 1932, and Gandhi subsequently began publishing Harijan.

Therefore, the correct answer is the Poona Pact.

Answer: A.

Question 75

Consider the following fruits:

I. Papaya
II. Pineapple
III. Guava

How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All three

D. None

Correct Answer: C. All three

Explanation

The Portuguese played an important role in the Columbian Exchange, introducing several New World crops and fruits into India.

The three listed fruits were introduced into India through Portuguese connections:

Papaya
Pineapple
Guava

Their introduction demonstrates the impact of European maritime expansion on Indian agriculture and food culture.

Thus, all three were introduced by the Portuguese.

Answer: C — All three.

Question 76

Consider the following countries:

I. United Kingdom
II. Denmark
III. New Zealand
IV. Australia
V. Brazil

How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

A. All the five

B. Only four

C. Only three

D. Only two

Correct Answer: B. Only four

Explanation

The question becomes clearer when overseas and external territories are taken into account.

United Kingdom — multiple overseas territories give it numerous time zones.
Denmark — Greenland and the Faroe Islands expand the Kingdom’s time-zone coverage.
New Zealand — its associated territories contribute additional time zones.
Australia — its external territories add to its time-zone spread.
Brazil — has four standard time zones, so it does not satisfy the condition of more than four.

Therefore, four of the five countries meet the criterion.

Answer: B — Only four.

Geography lesson: UPSC questions on time zones may consider territories and dependencies, not merely the mainland territory of a country.

Question 77

Consider the following statements:

I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometres from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. I only

B. II only

C. Both I and II

D. Neither I nor II

Correct Answer: A. I only

Explanation

Statement I is correct.

Anadyr, in Russia’s Far East, and Nome, in Alaska, are geographically close across the Bering Strait region, but the International Date Line produces a major difference in calendar dates.

This is why two places that are geographically close can experience different calendar days.

Statement II is incorrect.

Anadyr is ahead of Nome in time. Therefore, when it is Monday in Anadyr, it would correspond to an earlier calendar day in Nome, not Tuesday.

Thus, only Statement I is correct.

Answer: A — I only.

Question 78

Who among the following was the founder of the ‘Self-Respect Movement’?

A. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

B. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

C. Bhaskarrao Jadhav

D. Dinkarrao Javalkar

Correct Answer: A. ‘Periyar’ E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker

Explanation

The Self-Respect Movement was founded by E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker, popularly known as Periyar, in Tamil Nadu in 1925.

The movement sought to challenge:

caste hierarchy,
social inequality,
Brahmanical dominance,
religious orthodoxy, and
the social subordination of non-Brahmin communities.

It promoted self-respect, rationalism, social equality and individual dignity.

Periyar subsequently became one of the most influential figures in the Dravidian social reform tradition.

Answer: A.

Question 79

Consider the following pairs:

Country	Resource-rich in
I. Botswana	Diamond
II. Chile	Lithium
III. Indonesia	Nickel

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Correct Answer: C. All the three

Explanation

All three countries are strongly associated with the respective mineral resources.

I. Botswana — Diamond

Correct.

Botswana is one of the world’s important diamond-producing countries, and diamonds are central to its economy.

II. Chile — Lithium

Correct.

Chile possesses major lithium resources, particularly in the salt flats of the Atacama region.

III. Indonesia — Nickel

Correct.

Indonesia is one of the world’s major nickel producers and has become increasingly important to global supply chains for stainless steel and electric-vehicle batteries.

Therefore, all three pairs are correctly matched.

Answer: C — All the three.

Question 80

Consider the following pairs:

Region	Country
I. Mallorca	Italy
II. Normandy	Spain
III. Sardinia	France

In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

A. Only one

B. Only two

C. All the three

D. None

Correct Answer: D. None

Explanation

All three pairs are incorrectly matched.

I. Mallorca — Italy: Incorrect

Mallorca is the largest island of the Balearic Islands of Spain.

II. Normandy — Spain: Incorrect

Normandy is a historical and administrative region of France.

III. Sardinia — France: Incorrect

Sardinia is an autonomous island region of Italy.

Thus:

Mallorca → Spain
Normandy → France
Sardinia → Italy

None of the pairs in the question is correctly matched.

Answer: D — None.

Question 81

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors.

Statement II:
Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (a)

Explanation

Both statements are correct.

Several rare earth elements, particularly europium, terbium and yttrium, are used in display technologies. Their luminescent/phosphorescent properties make them useful as phosphors in television screens and computer monitors.

Thus, Statement II explains why certain rare earth elements are useful in display technology.

Concept:
Rare earth elements → phosphors → display technologies

Question 82

Consider the following statements:

I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a ‘future ready’ railway system by 2028.

II. ‘Kavach’ is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

III. ‘Kavach’ system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I and II only

Explanation

Statement I — Incorrect.
The National Rail Plan (NRP) has a 2030 vision for creating a future-ready railway system, not 2028.

Statement II — Incorrect.
Kavach is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system, developed by Indian Railways/RDSO in collaboration with Indian industry. It was not developed in collaboration with Germany.

Statement III — Correct.
Kavach uses RFID-based trackside equipment as part of its train-location and identification architecture.

Therefore, I and II are not correct.

Question 83

Consider the following space missions:

I. Axiom-4
II. SpaDeX
III. Gaganyaan

How many of the space missions given above encourage and support micro-gravity research?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation

Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan support microgravity research.

Axiom-4 carried scientific experiments designed to be conducted in the microgravity environment of the International Space Station.
Gaganyaan, India’s human-spaceflight programme, includes scientific experiments in the microgravity environment.
SpaDeX is primarily a technology-demonstration mission for autonomous docking rather than being classified for this question as a microgravity research mission.

Therefore, two missions qualify.

Answer: (b) Only two.

Question 84

With reference to India’s defence, consider the following pairs:

Aircraft type	Description
I. Dornier-228	Maritime patrol aircraft
II. IL-76	Supersonic combat aircraft
III. C-17 Globe-master III	Military transport aircraft

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All the three

(d) None

Answer: (b) Only two

Explanation

Pair I — Correct.
The Dornier-228 is used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard for maritime surveillance and patrol.

Pair II — Incorrect.
The IL-76 is a heavy strategic transport aircraft. It is not a supersonic combat aircraft.

Pair III — Correct.
The C-17 Globemaster III is a strategic military transport aircraft.

Therefore, two pairs — I and III — are correctly matched.

Question 85

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

(a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

(b) silver nitrate and potassium iodide

(c) silver iodide and potassium nitrate

(d) silver nitrate and potassium chloride

Answer: (a) silver iodide and potassium iodide

Explanation

The process is known as cloud seeding.

Silver iodide (AgI) is an important ice-nucleating agent because its crystal structure resembles that of ice. Potassium iodide (KI) can also be used as a seeding agent.

Cloud seeding can encourage precipitation under suitable atmospheric conditions, and the resulting rainfall can temporarily wash particulate pollutants out of the atmosphere.

Question 86

Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:

I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.

II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
The exercise of the President’s pardoning power under Article 72 is subject to limited judicial review. Courts do not ordinarily substitute their own decision for that of the executive, but they can intervene in cases involving arbitrariness, mala fide action, non-application of mind or irrelevant considerations.

Statement II — Incorrect.
Under Article 74, the President exercises executive powers on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

POLITY & GOVERNANCE

Question 87

Consider the following statements:

I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.

II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.

III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (c) I and III only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
Under Article 94, the Speaker continues in office after dissolution until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted Lok Sabha.

Statement II — Incorrect.
The Constitution does not require a newly elected Speaker to resign from his or her political party.

Statement III — Correct.
Article 94 provides for removal of the Speaker by a resolution of the Lok Sabha passed by a majority of all the then Members, with 14 days’ notice.

Therefore, I and III only are correct.

Question 88

Consider the following statements:

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.

II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d) Neither I nor II

Explanation

Statement I — Incorrect.
Disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, dealing with defection, is decided by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, subject to judicial review.

The President’s role under Article 103 concerns certain other questions of parliamentary disqualification, not Tenth Schedule defection cases.

Statement II — Incorrect.
The expression “political party” is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule.

Therefore, neither statement is correct.

Question 89

Consider the following statements:

Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.

Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Answer: (d)

Explanation

Statement I — Incorrect.
State Governments do have powers concerning the grant of concessions and regulation of extraction of minor minerals within their territories.

Statement II — Correct.
Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, the Central Government has the power to declare certain minerals as minor minerals.

Therefore, Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

Question 90

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

(a) The European Union

(b) The World Bank

(c) The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development

(d) The Food and Agriculture Organization

Answer: (a) The European Union

Explanation

The European Union enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL).

The law establishes legally binding targets for restoring degraded ecosystems and forms an important part of the EU’s broader efforts relating to biodiversity conservation, ecosystem restoration and climate action.

Question 91

Consider the following statements:

I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.

II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d) I, II and III

Explanation

All three statements are incorrect.

Statement I — Incorrect:
The Constitution does not require an intermediate-level Panchayat in every State. A State having a population not exceeding 20 lakh may not constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level.

Statement II — Incorrect:
The minimum age for membership of a Panchayat is 21 years, not 30 years.

Statement III — Incorrect:
The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission under Article 243-I.

Therefore, all three statements are not correct.

Question 92

Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC:

I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025.

II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999.

III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC.

IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of ‘tourism’ is being led by India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) I only

Answer: (d) I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
BIMSTEC has seven member States: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka and Thailand.

Statement II — Incorrect.
BIMSTEC originated with the Bangkok Declaration of 1997, not the Dhaka Declaration of 1999.

Statement III — Incorrect.
The founding members were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka and Thailand. Myanmar joined later, followed by Nepal and Bhutan.

Statement IV — Incorrect.
The tourism sector/subsector is led by Nepal, not India.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Question 93

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of ‘Gandhi Peace Prize’?

I. The President of India

II. The Prime Minister of India

III. The Chief Justice of India

IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) II and IV only

(b) I, II and III

(c) II, III and IV

(d) I and III only

Answer: (c) II, III and IV

Explanation

The Gandhi Peace Prize Jury includes:

Prime Minister of India — Chairperson
Chief Justice of India
Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
Two eminent persons nominated to the Jury

The President of India is not a member of the Jury.

Therefore, II, III and IV are correct.

Question 94

GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN?

I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity.

II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management.

III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) I, II and III

(b) II and III only

(c) I only

(d) I and II only

Answer: (d) I and II only

Explanation

GAGAN — GPS Aided Geo Augmented Navigation — is a satellite-based augmentation system developed by ISRO and the Airports Authority of India (AAI).

Statement I — Correct: It improves the accuracy and integrity of satellite-based navigation.

Statement II — Correct: Better navigation accuracy and reliability support more efficient and uniform air traffic management.

Statement III — Incorrect: Its potential applications are not restricted exclusively to aviation; satellite-based augmentation can support other sectors such as road, rail and maritime transportation.

Therefore, I and II only are correct.

Question 95

Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025:

I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
The AI Action Summit in Paris in February 2025 was co-chaired by France and India and built upon the earlier international AI discussions at Bletchley Park in 2023 and Seoul in 2024.

Statement II — Incorrect.
The United States and United Kingdom did not sign the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Question 96

Consider the following pairs:

	International Year	Year
I.	International Year of the Woman Farmer	2026
II.	International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism	2027
III.	International Year of Peace and Trust	2025
IV.	International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence	2029

How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All the four

Answer: (d) All the four

Explanation

All four pairs are correctly matched.

2025 → International Year of Peace and Trust
2026 → International Year of the Woman Farmer
2027 → International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism
2029 → International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence

Therefore, all four pairs are correct.

INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS & CURRENT AFFAIRS

Question 97

Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS:

I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan.

II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS.

III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multiculturalism for Just Global Development and Security.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I and II

(b) I and III

(c) II and III

(d) I only

Answer: (a) I and II

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
The 16th BRICS Summit was held in Kazan, Russia, under Russia’s chairship in 2024.

Statement II — Correct.
Indonesia became a full member of BRICS in January 2025.

Statement III — Incorrect.
The actual theme was:

“Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security.”

UPSC changed “multilateralism” to “multiculturalism”, making the statement incorrect.

Therefore, I and II only are correct.

Question 98

Consider the following statements about Lokpal:

I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.

II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.

III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.

IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) III only

(b) II and III

(c) I and IV

(d) None of the above statements is correct

Answer: (a) III only

Explanation

Statement I — Incorrect.
The jurisdiction of the Lokpal is not restricted only to public servants serving within India.

Statement II — Incorrect.
The law does not provide that only the Chief Justice of India can become the Chairperson.

Statement III — Correct.
The minimum age is 45 years for appointment as Chairperson or Member.

Statement IV — Incorrect.
The Lokpal can inquire into allegations against a serving Prime Minister, subject to specific statutory restrictions and safeguards.

Therefore, only Statement III is correct.

Question 99

Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup:

I. The event was held in Delhi, India.

II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category.

III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) I and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a) I only

Explanation

Statement I — Correct.
The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi, India.

Statement II — Incorrect.
India defeated Nepal 54–36 in the men’s final, not 78–40.

Statement III — Incorrect.
India defeated Nepal 78–40 in the women’s final, not 54–36.

Thus, UPSC interchanged the scores of the men’s and women’s finals.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct.

Question 100

Consider the following statements:

I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world’s youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi.

II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world’s youngest ever Grandmaster.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (b) II only

Explanation

Statement I — Incorrect.
The 45th Chess Olympiad was a team event. Gukesh’s historic achievement as the youngest World Chess Champion came in the 2024 World Chess Championship, where he defeated Ding Liren, not Ian Nepomniachtchi in the Chess Olympiad.

Statement II — Correct.
Abhimanyu Mishra holds the record for becoming the youngest-ever Grandmaster.

Therefore, only Statement II is correct.